ATI RN
Genitourinary System Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient has low cardiac output due to poor cardiac function. He is eclematous. Which one of the following should be avoided because it can aggravate cardiac dysfunctions?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Mannitol. Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that can worsen heart failure by increasing plasma volume and exacerbating the workload on the heart. Furosemide (A) and Hydrochlorothiazide (D) are loop and thiazide diuretics, respectively, commonly used to manage fluid overload in heart failure patients. Spironolactone (B) is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can be beneficial in heart failure by counteracting potassium loss caused by other diuretics.
Question 2 of 5
How is an intravenous pyelogram performed?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because an intravenous pyelogram (IVP) is performed by injecting a contrast dye into the vein. This dye travels through the bloodstream, highlighting the kidneys, ureters, and bladder on X-ray images. Palpating the suprapubic area (A) involves feeling for the bladder, but it is not part of an IVP procedure. Percussing the area over the bladder (B) involves tapping to assess for fluid or air, which is not relevant to an IVP. Using a stethoscope to listen for abnormal sounds (D) is not related to the process of an IVP.
Question 3 of 5
While managing a client after a medical or surgical procedure for bladder stones, when should the nurse notify the physician?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because assessing and recognizing abnormal findings is crucial in post-procedure care for bladder stones. This includes monitoring for signs of infection, urinary retention, bleeding, or other complications that may require immediate medical intervention. Notifying the physician promptly allows for timely treatment and prevents potential complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly related to the immediate post-procedure care for bladder stones and do not require immediate physician notification.
Question 4 of 5
A physician is caring for a patient with a urinary tract infection. The physician would expect the plan of care to include:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Antibiotics and phenazopyridine. Antibiotics are essential to treat the bacterial infection causing the UTI. Phenazopyridine can help relieve urinary discomfort. Erythropoietin and stent placement (B) are not indicated for UTI. Hormonal therapy and IV fluids (C) are not standard treatments for UTI. Hourly urine output measurements and antibiotics (D) are not typically necessary, as antibiotics alone are sufficient for treating UTIs.
Question 5 of 5
For which patient with incontinence would a bladder-training program be an appropriate intervention?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: the patient with urge incontinence and abnormal detrusor muscle contractions. Bladder training is an appropriate intervention for this patient because it aims to increase the bladder capacity and decrease the frequency of abnormal contractions. The program involves scheduled voiding and delaying urination to gradually increase the time between bathroom visits. This helps to retrain the bladder muscles and improve control over urination. A: Functional incontinence due to mental status changes is not typically addressed through bladder training. B: Stress incontinence due to weakened bladder neck support is better treated with pelvic floor exercises and lifestyle modifications. D: Transient incontinence due to inability to get to toileting facilities requires environmental modifications and timed toileting, not bladder training.