ATI RN
foundation of nursing questions and answers Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient has just returned to the surgical floor after undergoing a retinal detachment repair. The postoperative orders specify that the patient should be kept in a prone position until otherwise ordered. What should the nurse do?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B Rationale: 1. Prone position post retinal detachment repair helps the gas bubble or silicone oil stay against the retina to support healing. 2. This position prevents the bubble/oil from moving and causing further detachment. 3. Repositioning can jeopardize the surgical repair and lead to complications. 4. Calling the physician (A) is unnecessary as the order is clear. 5. Instructing the patient to prevent bleeding (C) is not related to the positioning after retinal detachment repair. 6. Repositioning after the first dressing change (D) contradicts the initial order and risks complications.
Question 2 of 9
In general, when a patient’s energy requirements are completely met by kilocalorie (kcal) intake in food, which assessment finding will the nurse observe?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Weight does not change. When a patient's energy requirements are completely met by kcal intake, their weight should remain stable as there is a balance between energy intake and expenditure. This indicates that the body is receiving adequate energy for its needs, leading to weight maintenance. A: Weight increases - This would indicate an excess of energy intake over expenditure, leading to weight gain. B: Weight decreases - This would indicate a deficit in energy intake compared to expenditure, resulting in weight loss. D: Weight fluctuates daily - Daily weight fluctuations are normal and can be influenced by factors like hydration levels, food intake, and exercise, but a stable weight over time indicates a balance between energy intake and expenditure.
Question 3 of 9
A 6-month-old infant is brought to the ED by his parents for inconsolable crying and pulling at his right ear. When assessing this infant, the advanced practice nurse is aware that the tympanic membrane should be what color in a healthy ear?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pink. In a healthy ear, the tympanic membrane should appear pink due to the rich blood supply. This color indicates good vascularization and normal functioning of the ear. Yellowish-white (choice A), gray (choice C), and bluish-white (choice D) are incorrect because they do not reflect the normal color of a healthy tympanic membrane. Yellowish-white may indicate fluid behind the eardrum, gray may suggest infection or inflammation, and bluish-white could indicate poor blood flow or trauma. Therefore, the pink color of the tympanic membrane is the most appropriate and indicative of a healthy ear in this case.
Question 4 of 9
You are caring for a patient who has just been told that her stage IV colon cancer has recurred and metastasized to the liver. The oncologist offers the patient the option of surgery to treat the progression of this disease. What type of surgery does the oncologist offer?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Palliative surgery. In this scenario, the patient's colon cancer has already progressed to stage IV with metastasis to the liver, indicating an advanced and incurable condition. Palliative surgery aims to alleviate symptoms, improve quality of life, and prolong survival without aiming for a cure. Reconstructive surgery (B) is typically done to restore form or function, which is not the primary goal in this case. Salvage surgery (C) is usually performed to rescue a situation where initial treatment has failed, which is not the case here. Prophylactic surgery (D) is preventive and is not appropriate in a situation where cancer is already present and advanced.
Question 5 of 9
A 23-year-old woman comes to the free clinic stating I think I have a lump in my breast. Do I have cancer? The nurse instructs the patient that a diagnosis of breast cancer is confirmed by what?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mammography. Mammography is the gold standard for diagnosing breast cancer as it can detect abnormalities such as lumps or tumors in the breast tissue. It provides detailed images that can help healthcare providers identify suspicious areas that may require further testing or biopsy. Supervised breast self-examination (choice A) is important for early detection but is not a diagnostic tool. Fine-needle aspiration (choice C) is a procedure used to obtain a sample of cells for further analysis but is not definitive for diagnosing breast cancer. Chest x-ray (choice D) is used to evaluate the lungs and heart, not the breast tissue for cancer.
Question 6 of 9
Fraternal twins are delivered by your Rh-negative patient. Twin A is Rh-positive and twin B is Rh-negative. Prior to administering Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM), the nurse should determine the results of the
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: indirect Coombs test of the mother. This test is crucial to determine if the mother has developed antibodies against the Rh-positive blood of twin A, which could lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn in future pregnancies. A direct Coombs test of twin A or twin B is not relevant in this scenario as it does not provide information about the mother's antibody status. Transcutaneous bilirubin levels are used to monitor jaundice in newborns and not related to Rh incompatibility. In summary, the indirect Coombs test of the mother is the most relevant test to assess the risk of hemolytic disease in future pregnancies.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient who is scheduled for a cervical discectomy the following day. During health education, the patient should be made aware of what potential complications?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hematoma at the surgical site. This is a potential complication of cervical discectomy due to the risk of bleeding post-surgery. Hematoma can compress nearby structures and lead to increased pain and swelling. A: Vertebral fracture is not a typical complication of cervical discectomy, as the surgery aims to relieve pressure on the spinal cord caused by a herniated disc, not to cause fractures. C: Scoliosis is a condition characterized by abnormal lateral curvature of the spine, and it is not directly related to cervical discectomy. D: Renal trauma is not a common complication of cervical discectomy, as the surgery focuses on the cervical spine and does not involve the kidneys or renal system.
Question 8 of 9
A 76-year-old with a diagnosis of penile cancer has been admitted to the medical floor. Because the incidence of penile cancer is so low, the staff educator has been asked to teach about penile cancer. What risk factors should the educator cite in this presentation? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Phimosis. Phimosis, the inability to retract the foreskin over the glans penis, is a significant risk factor for penile cancer. Phimosis can lead to poor hygiene, inflammation, and chronic irritation, increasing the risk of cancer development. The other choices (B: Priapism, C: Herpes simplex infection, D: Increasing age, E: Lack of circumcision) are not directly linked to penile cancer development. Priapism is prolonged and painful erection unrelated to penile cancer. Herpes simplex infection is a viral infection and not a primary risk factor for penile cancer. Increasing age is a general risk factor for many cancers, but it is not specific to penile cancer. Lack of circumcision has been associated with a slightly higher risk of penile cancer, but it is not as significant as phimosis.
Question 9 of 9
A 29-year-old patient has just been told that he has testicular cancer and needs to have surgery. During a presurgical appointment, the patient admits to feeling devastated that he requires surgery, stating that it will leave him emasculated and a shell of a man. The nurse should identify what nursing diagnosis when planning the patients subsequent care?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Disturbed Body Image Related to Effects of Surgery. This nursing diagnosis is appropriate because the patient expresses concerns about feeling emasculated and a shell of a man after the surgery, indicating a disturbance in his body image. The patient's perception of how the surgery will affect his masculinity is a clear indication of body image disturbance. Choice B is incorrect because there is no mention of spiritual distress in the patient's statements. Choice C is incorrect as there is no indication that the patient will experience social isolation specifically related to the surgery. Choice D is incorrect as the patient's concerns are primarily related to his body image and not loneliness.