ATI RN
foundations of nursing test bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient has just returned to the postsurgical unit from post-anesthetic recovery after breast surgery for removal of a malignancy. What is the most likely major nursing diagnosis to include in this patients immediate plan of care?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Acute pain related to tissue manipulation and incision. This is the most likely major nursing diagnosis because post-surgical pain is a common and expected occurrence after breast surgery. The patient is likely to experience pain due to tissue manipulation and incision during the surgery. Addressing acute pain is crucial for the patient's comfort, well-being, and overall recovery. Choice B (Ineffective coping related to surgery) may be a secondary nursing diagnosis, but acute pain takes priority as it directly impacts the patient's immediate comfort and recovery. Choice C (Risk for trauma related to post-surgical injury) is not the most appropriate nursing diagnosis since the patient has already undergone surgery and is not at risk for further injury at this point. Choice D (Chronic sorrow related to change in body image) is not the most immediate concern post-surgery; addressing acute pain is more critical.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse practitioner is assessing a 55-year-old male patient who is complaining of perineal discomfort, burning, urgency, and frequency with urination. The patient states that he has pain with ejaculation. The nurse knows that the patient is exhibiting symptoms of what?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Prostatitis. The patient's symptoms of perineal discomfort, burning, urgency, frequency with urination, and pain with ejaculation are indicative of prostatitis. Prostatitis is inflammation of the prostate gland, leading to these symptoms. Varicocele (A) is an enlargement of the veins within the scrotum, usually painless. Epididymitis (B) is inflammation of the epididymis, causing scrotal pain and swelling. Hydrocele (D) is a fluid-filled sac around the testicle, typically painless. The patient's symptoms align most closely with prostatitis due to the involvement of the prostate gland and the specific urinary and ejaculatory symptoms experienced.
Question 3 of 5
A 55-year-old man presents at the clinic complaining of erectile dysfunction. The patient has a history of diabetes. The physician orders tadalafil (Cialis) to be taken 1 hour before sexual intercourse. The nurse reviews the patients history prior to instructing the patient on the use of this medication. What disorder will contraindicate the use of tadalafil (Cialis)?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Retinopathy. Tadalafil (Cialis) is contraindicated in patients with retinopathy due to the potential risk of worsening vision problems. Retinopathy is a serious eye condition commonly associated with diabetes, and using tadalafil can lead to further complications in the eyes. It is crucial for patients with retinopathy to avoid medications that can exacerbate their eye condition. Incorrect choices: A: Cataracts - Cataracts do not contraindicate the use of tadalafil. Tadalafil does not have a direct negative impact on cataracts. C: Hypotension - Hypotension is not a contraindication for tadalafil use. In fact, tadalafil can cause a drop in blood pressure, so it should be used with caution in patients with hypotension. D: Diabetic nephropathy - Diabetic nephropathy is not a direct contraindication for tadalafil use. Tadalafil is generally
Question 4 of 5
To decrease glandular cellular activity and prostate size, an 83-year-old patient has been prescribed finasteride (Proscar). When performing patient education with this patient, the nurse should be sure to tell the patient what?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Finasteride is a medication that works by decreasing glandular cellular activity and reducing prostate size. Step 2: Dietary supplements can interact with finasteride, potentially affecting its effectiveness or causing adverse effects. Step 3: Reporting the planned use of dietary supplements to the physician ensures proper monitoring and adjustment of the treatment plan. Step 4: This communication promotes patient safety and optimal therapeutic outcomes. Therefore, choice A is correct as it emphasizes the importance of informing the physician about dietary supplement use to ensure the efficacy and safety of finasteride. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the mechanism of action or specific considerations of finasteride therapy.
Question 5 of 5
A nursing student is learning how to perform sexual assessments using the PLISSIT model. According to this model, the student should begin an assessment by doing which of the following?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ensuring patient privacy. In the PLISSIT model, ensuring patient privacy is crucial as it creates a safe and confidential environment for discussing sensitive topics like sexual health. This step helps build trust and allows the patient to feel comfortable sharing intimate details. Briefly teaching about normal sexual physiology (A) may come later in the assessment process. Assuring confidentiality (B) is important but doesn't address the immediate need for privacy. Asking if the patient is willing to discuss sexual functioning (C) assumes patient readiness without first establishing a private setting.