A patient has just been diagnosed with Parkinsons disease and the nurse is planning the patients subsequent care for the home setting. What nursing diagnosis should the nurse address when educating the patients family?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Risk for injury. Patients with Parkinson's disease are at risk for falls due to symptoms like tremors and impaired balance. Educating the family about fall prevention measures is crucial. Choice A, Risk for infection, is not directly related to Parkinson's disease. Choice B, Impaired spontaneous ventilation, is not a common concern in Parkinson's disease. Choice C, Unilateral neglect, is more commonly seen in conditions like stroke, not Parkinson's disease. Therefore, the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for the patient with Parkinson's disease is addressing the risk for injury to prevent falls.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Provide emotional support to the patient and her family. This is the priority as the patient has received devastating news and needs immediate support. Emotional support can help the patient cope with the diagnosis, express feelings, and make decisions. B: Implementing distraction techniques may not address the patient's emotional needs in this critical situation. C: Offering to inform the family of the diagnosis is important but not the priority at this moment. D: Teaching about maintaining a positive attitude may not be appropriate as the patient is facing a terminal illness.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Postoperative day 6 following tympanoplasty and mastoidectomy is still within the early phase of recovery, where occasional sharp, shooting pains in the affected ear can be expected due to the healing process. Here's a step-by-step rationale: 1. Timing: It is only day 6 post-surgery, so it is normal to experience some pain as part of the healing process. 2. Nature of pain: Sharp, shooting pains are common post-surgery due to tissue healing and nerve regeneration. 3. Lack of other symptoms: The patient did not report any other concerning symptoms like fever or discharge, which would be more indicative of an infection. 4. Unlikely complications: Spontaneous rupture of the tympanic membrane or unsuccessful surgery would typically present with more severe and consistent symptoms. Summary: - B: Unlikely as there are no other signs of infection. - C: Unlikely as the pain is described as occasional and sharp. - D:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Handwashing is crucial in preventing the spread of viral conjunctivitis, which is highly contagious. Step 2: Children often touch their eyes and then surfaces, aiding in disease transmission. Step 3: Educating parents and the child on proper hand hygiene can help contain the infection. Step 4: Antibiotics are not effective against viral infections, so compliance is not necessary. Step 5: Complications like meningitis and septicemia are extremely rare with viral conjunctivitis. Step 6: Surgery is not indicated for viral conjunctivitis, as it is a self-limiting condition.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because spontaneous termination of a pregnancy is considered an abortion if it occurs before 20 weeks gestation. This is based on the medical definition of abortion as the termination of a pregnancy before the fetus is able to survive outside the womb. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the criteria for defining abortion. B and D are specific conditions related to the fetus and the presence of infection, while C refers to passing products of conception intact, which can happen in both spontaneous and induced abortions.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gay, bisexual, and other men who have sex with men. This group currently has the highest risk of contracting HIV due to various factors such as higher prevalence within this population, risky sexual behaviors, and limited access to healthcare services. Men who have sex with men have been disproportionately affected by HIV/AIDS since the beginning of the epidemic. Recreational drug users and blood transfusion recipients have lower overall risk compared to men who have sex with men. Health care providers, although at risk of occupational exposure, have lower risk compared to the other groups mentioned.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Malignant cells contain proteins called tumor-specific antigens. Tumor-specific antigens are unique to cancer cells and are not found in normal cells. This characteristic distinguishes cancer cells from normal cells and is important in cancer detection and treatment. A: Malignant cells do not necessarily contain more fibronectin than normal body cells. Fibronectin is a glycoprotein found in the extracellular matrix and is not a defining characteristic of cancer cells. C: Chromosomes in cancer cells are actually more prone to instability and mutations compared to normal cells, making them less durable and stable. D: The nuclei of cancer cells can vary in size and shape, with irregularities often seen, rather than being unusually large and regularly shaped.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Normal deep tendon reflexes. This indicates a therapeutic level of magnesium sulfate as it shows that the medication is effectively preventing hyperreflexia, a common sign of magnesium toxicity. Drowsiness (choice A) can indicate toxicity. Urinary output of 20 mL/hour (choice B) is not specific to magnesium sulfate levels. Respiratory rate of 10 to 12 breaths per minute (choice D) is indicative of respiratory depression, a sign of magnesium toxicity. Thus, choice C is the best assessment to indicate a therapeutic level of medication in a patient with preeclampsia taking magnesium sulfate.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Evidence of a more advanced lesion. A stoney hardening in the posterior lobe of the prostate gland that is not mobile is indicative of a more advanced lesion, such as prostate cancer. This finding suggests that the lesion has progressed beyond the early stages. In early prostate cancer, the prostate gland may feel firm but not stoney hard, and the lesion is usually mobile. Metastatic disease would involve spread of the cancer to other parts of the body, which is not evident from the DRE alone. A normal finding would not present as stoney hardening and lack of mobility in the prostate gland during a DRE.