ATI RN
test bank foundations of nursing Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient has just been diagnosed with Parkinsons disease and the nurse is planning the patients subsequent care for the home setting. What nursing diagnosis should the nurse address when educating the patients family?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Risk for injury. Patients with Parkinson's disease are at risk for falls due to symptoms like tremors and impaired balance. Educating the family about fall prevention measures is crucial. Choice A, Risk for infection, is not directly related to Parkinson's disease. Choice B, Impaired spontaneous ventilation, is not a common concern in Parkinson's disease. Choice C, Unilateral neglect, is more commonly seen in conditions like stroke, not Parkinson's disease. Therefore, the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for the patient with Parkinson's disease is addressing the risk for injury to prevent falls.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is teaching the staff about informatics.Which information from the staff indicates the nurse needs to follow up?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Computer competency does not equate to informatics competency. Informatics involves more than just basic computer skills; it encompasses the ability to use technology to manage and analyze data for improved healthcare outcomes. A: This is a correct statement about informatics proficiency. B: This is also a correct statement about the skills needed for informatics. D: This is a true statement about nursing informatics being a recognized specialty, but it does not indicate a need for follow-up. In summary, choice C is incorrect as it oversimplifies the concept of informatics, while choices A, B, and D provide accurate information related to informatics.
Question 3 of 9
Rh incompatibility can occur if the patient is Rh-negative and the
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because Rh incompatibility occurs when an Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus. If fetal blood enters the mother's circulation during pregnancy or childbirth, the mother's immune system can produce antibodies against Rh-positive red blood cells, leading to potential harm to future pregnancies. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Rh incompatibility does not occur when the fetus is Rh-negative, the father is Rh-positive, or both the father and fetus are Rh-negative.
Question 4 of 9
An oncology nurse educator is providing health education to a patient who has been diagnosed with skin cancer. The patients wife has asked about the differences between normal cells and cancer cells. What characteristic of a cancer cell should the educator cite?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Malignant cells contain proteins called tumor-specific antigens. Tumor-specific antigens are unique to cancer cells and are not found in normal cells. This characteristic distinguishes cancer cells from normal cells and is important in cancer detection and treatment. A: Malignant cells do not necessarily contain more fibronectin than normal body cells. Fibronectin is a glycoprotein found in the extracellular matrix and is not a defining characteristic of cancer cells. C: Chromosomes in cancer cells are actually more prone to instability and mutations compared to normal cells, making them less durable and stable. D: The nuclei of cancer cells can vary in size and shape, with irregularities often seen, rather than being unusually large and regularly shaped.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse practitioner is examining a patient who presented at the free clinic with vulvar pruritus. For which assessment finding would the practitioner look that may indicate the patient has an infection caused by Candida albicans?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cottage cheese-like discharge. Candida albicans is a common cause of vulvovaginal candidiasis, characterized by itching and cottage cheese-like discharge. This type of discharge is specific to a yeast infection. Yellow-green discharge (choice B) is indicative of trichomoniasis, gray-white discharge (choice C) is seen in bacterial vaginosis, and watery discharge with a fishy odor (choice D) is characteristic of bacterial vaginosis or trichomoniasis. Therefore, the presence of cottage cheese-like discharge is a key indicator of a Candida albicans infection.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is assessing the skin integrity of a patient who has AIDS. When performing this inspection, the nurse should prioritize assessment of what skin surfaces?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Perianal region and oral mucosa. In patients with AIDS, these areas are more prone to opportunistic infections due to decreased immune function. The perianal region can be affected by conditions like anal warts or herpes, while the oral mucosa can develop oral thrush or other oral infections. By prioritizing assessment of these areas, the nurse can promptly identify any potential issues and initiate appropriate interventions. Choice B: Sacral region and lower abdomen are not typically high-risk areas for skin integrity issues in AIDS patients. Choice C: Scalp and skin over the scapulae are not commonly affected by opportunistic infections related to AIDS. Choice D: Axillae and upper thorax are not as commonly affected as the perianal region and oral mucosa in AIDS patients.
Question 7 of 9
A patients ocular tumor has necessitated enucleation and the patient will be fitted with a prosthesis. The nurse should address what nursing diagnosis when planning the patients discharge education?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Disturbed body image. Enucleation can have a significant impact on a patient's self-image and self-esteem. By addressing this nursing diagnosis, the nurse can help the patient cope with the changes in their physical appearance and support them in adjusting to wearing a prosthesis. Summary: - Choice B (Chronic pain) is incorrect because enucleation may cause acute pain initially, but chronic pain is not a common concern post-enucleation. - Choice C (Ineffective protection) is incorrect because enucleation does not necessarily affect the eye's protection mechanism. - Choice D (Unilateral neglect) is incorrect as it refers to a neurological condition unrelated to the patient's situation post-enucleation.
Question 8 of 9
A patient with a diagnosis of gastric cancer has been unable to tolerate oral food and fluid intake and her tumor location precludes the use of enteral feeding. What intervention should the nurse identify as best meeting this patients nutritional needs?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: TPN administered via a peripherally inserted central catheter. TPN provides comprehensive nutrition intravenously, bypassing the GI tract, which is important for patients unable to tolerate oral intake. A peripherally inserted central catheter allows for long-term TPN administration. A: Administration of parenteral feeds via a peripheral IV is not ideal for long-term nutrition as it may not provide complete nutrition. C: Insertion of an NG tube may not be feasible due to the tumor location and the patient's inability to tolerate oral intake. D: Maintaining NPO status and IV hydration alone may lead to malnutrition over time as it does not provide adequate nutrition.
Question 9 of 9
Examination of a newborn in the birth room reveals bilateral cataracts. Which disease process in the maternal history would likely cause this abnormality?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rubella. Rubella infection during pregnancy can lead to congenital rubella syndrome, which includes bilateral cataracts as a characteristic feature. Rubella virus can cross the placenta and affect the developing fetus. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) can also cause congenital cataracts, but rubella is more commonly associated with this abnormality. Syphilis can cause other congenital abnormalities but not bilateral cataracts. HIV does not typically lead to bilateral cataracts in newborns.