ATI RN
Genitourinary System Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient has had her indwelling urinary catheter since admission. How should the nurse best respond to removed after having it in place for 10 days during this finding? recovery from an acute illness. Two hours after removal
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Inform the patient that urgency and occasional small-volume voids are common after catheter removal. This response is correct because it acknowledges the patient's symptoms as a normal physiological response post-catheter removal, providing reassurance and education. Option A is incorrect as it focuses on fluid intake rather than addressing the patient's specific concern. Option B is incorrect as it suggests limiting fluid intake, which may not be necessary in this situation. Option C is incorrect as a high-sodium diet is not indicated for the reported symptoms.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is aware of the high incidence and
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale: Option B is correct because providing education on the importance of adequate hydration and strategies to prevent fluid volume deficit is crucial for older adults. This includes encouraging regular water intake, monitoring urine color, and recognizing signs of dehydration. Option A is incorrect as applying an ice pack to the perineum does not address fluid volume deficit. The other choices are not provided, but they would likely be incorrect as they do not focus on addressing fluid volume deficit in older adults.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is working with a patient who will undergo invasive urologic testing. The nurse has informed the patient that slight hematuria may occur after the testing
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, increased fluid intake following the test. Hematuria after urologic testing is common due to irritation of the urinary tract. Increased fluid intake can help dilute urine, reduce irritation, and promote flushing of any potential blood clots. Option A is incorrect as it does not address the underlying cause of hematuria. Option C is incorrect as OTC diuretics may not be necessary and can potentially worsen hematuria. Option D is incorrect as gentle massage of the lower abdomen will not resolve hematuria.
Question 4 of 5
When performing a genitourinary assessment, the nurse notices that the urethral meatus is ventrally positioned. This finding is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Called hypospadias. Hypospadias is a congenital condition where the urethral meatus is located on the ventral side of the penis. This condition is typically present from birth and is not a result of phimosis, which is the narrowing of the foreskin. It is also not likely due to a stricture, which is a narrowing of the urethra. Furthermore, hypospadias is a congenital condition and is not associated with aging, making option D incorrect.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is providing patient teaching about an erectile dysfunction drug. One of the drug’s potential side effects is prolonged, painful erection of the penis without sexual stimulation, which is known as:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Priapism. Priapism is a rare but serious side effect of some erectile dysfunction drugs, causing prolonged and painful erection without sexual stimulation. Orchitis (A) is inflammation of the testicles, not related to this side effect. Stricture (B) is a narrowing of a tube or passageway, not relevant to this scenario. Phimosis (C) is a condition in which the foreskin of the penis cannot be retracted, unrelated to the side effect described. Therefore, the correct answer is D, as it aligns with the description of prolonged, painful erection without sexual stimulation.