ATI RN
foundation of nursing questions and answers Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient has come into the free clinic asking to be tested for HIV infection. The patient asks the nurse how the test works. The nurse responds that if the testing shows that antibodies to the AIDS virus are present in the blood, this indicates what?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: The patient has been infected with HIV. Antibodies to the AIDS virus in the blood indicate a past or current infection with HIV. This is because the body produces antibodies in response to the presence of the virus. A: The patient is immune to HIV is incorrect because antibodies indicate exposure, not immunity. B: The patient's immune system is intact is incorrect because the presence of antibodies does not necessarily reflect the overall functionality of the immune system. C: The patient has AIDS-related complications is incorrect because the presence of antibodies does not directly indicate the presence of AIDS-related complications.
Question 2 of 9
When assessing patient with nutritional needs, which patients will require follow-up from the nurse?(Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A patient with infection taking tetracycline with milk. This is because tetracycline binds with the calcium in milk, reducing its absorption and effectiveness. The nurse should follow up to ensure the patient is not compromising the treatment. Choices B and C are incorrect because increasing fiber for irritable bowel syndrome and following a high-fiber diet for diverticulitis are appropriate interventions that do not require immediate follow-up. Choice D is incorrect because it is a routine part of managing enteral feedings to monitor gastric residuals, and does not necessarily require immediate follow-up unless there are specific concerns.
Question 3 of 9
Which finding in the assessment of a patient following an abruption placenta could indicate a major complication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C - bleeding at IV insertion site. This finding could indicate a major complication following an abruption placenta, such as disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) or hypovolemic shock. Bleeding at the IV site suggests a systemic issue affecting the patient's coagulation status. Choices A, B, and D are not directly indicative of a major complication following an abruption placenta. Urine output, blood pressure, and respiratory rate are important parameters to monitor but do not specifically point to a major complication in this context.
Question 4 of 9
A patient who was pregnant had a spontaneous abortion at approximately 4 weeks’ gestation. At the time of the miscarriage, it was thought that all products of conception were expelled. Two weeks later, the patient presents at the clinic office complaining of “crampy” abdominal pain and a scant amount of serosanguineous vaginal drainage with a slight odor. The pregnancy test is negative. Vital signs reveal a temperature of 100F, with blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg, irregular pulse 88 beats/minute (bpm), and respirations, 20 breaths per minute. Based on this assessment data, what does the nurse anticipate as a clinical diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Uterine infection. The patient's symptoms of crampy abdominal pain, scant serosanguineous vaginal drainage with odor, negative pregnancy test, and vital signs indicating fever, low blood pressure, and irregular pulse suggest an infection. The history of recent miscarriage raises suspicion for retained products of conception leading to infection. Ectopic pregnancy (choice A) would present with different symptoms such as abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and positive pregnancy test. Gestational trophoblastic disease (choice C) typically presents with abnormal vaginal bleeding and high levels of hCG. Endometriosis (choice D) is a chronic condition and not related to the acute symptoms described. In summary, the clinical presentation aligns with uterine infection given the patient's history, symptoms, and vital signs.
Question 5 of 9
Which behaviors indicate the nurse is using criticalthinking standards when communicating with patients? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Uses humility. Critical thinking in nursing involves being open-minded, self-aware, and willing to consider different perspectives. Humility allows nurses to acknowledge their limitations, seek feedback, and continuously learn and improve. Instilling faith (A) may be important but does not directly relate to critical thinking standards. Self-confidence (C) can be beneficial, but excessive confidence can lead to closed-mindedness. Supportiveness (D) is valuable in patient care but does not specifically demonstrate critical thinking standards. In summary, humility enables nurses to approach patient communication with an open and reflective mindset, essential for applying critical thinking standards effectively.
Question 6 of 9
A 16-year-old has come to the clinic and asks to talk to a nurse. The nurse asks the teen what she needs and the teen responds that she has become sexually active and is concerned about getting HIV. The teen asks the nurse what she can do keep from getting HIV. What would be the nurses best response?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it emphasizes the importance of consistent and correct condom use in preventing HIV transmission. Here's the rationale: 1. Abstinence is the most effective way to prevent HIV, but since the teen is sexually active, abstinence may not be feasible for her. 2. Using condoms consistently and correctly is the next best method for preventing HIV transmission during sexual activity. 3. Choice A is incorrect because it implies that using condoms is not effective, which is not true. 4. Choice B is incorrect because it only mentions female condoms, while both male and female condoms can be effective in preventing HIV. 5. Choice C is incorrect because while new prevention methods are being researched, the established method of consistent condom use remains the most effective.
Question 7 of 9
Which finding on a prenatal visit at 10 weeks might suggest a hydatidiform mole?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fundal height measurement of 18 cm. This finding suggests a hydatidiform mole because it is larger than expected for a 10-week pregnancy due to excessive trophoblastic proliferation. A: Blood pressure is within normal range. B: Nausea is common in early pregnancy and not specific to a mole. D: History of bright red spotting is more indicative of a miscarriage or other complications, not necessarily a mole.
Question 8 of 9
Fraternal twins are delivered by your Rh-negative patient. Twin A is Rh-positive and twin B is Rh-negative. Prior to administering Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM), the nurse should determine the results of the
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: indirect Coombs test of the mother. This test is crucial to determine if the mother has developed antibodies against the Rh-positive blood of twin A, which could lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn in future pregnancies. A direct Coombs test of twin A or twin B is not relevant in this scenario as it does not provide information about the mother's antibody status. Transcutaneous bilirubin levels are used to monitor jaundice in newborns and not related to Rh incompatibility. In summary, the indirect Coombs test of the mother is the most relevant test to assess the risk of hemolytic disease in future pregnancies.
Question 9 of 9
A patient is receiving opioids for pain. Which bowel assessment is a priority?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Constipation. When a patient is receiving opioids, constipation is a common side effect due to decreased gut motility. It is a priority assessment because untreated constipation can lead to serious complications such as bowel obstruction. Monitoring for constipation allows for early intervention with stool softeners or laxatives to prevent complications. Incorrect choices: A: Clostridium difficile - While important to consider in patients on antibiotics, it is not directly related to opioid use. C: Hemorrhoids - Although opioids can contribute to constipation which may exacerbate hemorrhoids, it is not the priority assessment. D: Diarrhea - Opioids typically cause constipation, so diarrhea is less likely to be a priority concern in this scenario.