ATI RN
NCLEX Pharmacology Cardiovascular Drugs Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient has been taking the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) sertraline (Zoloft) for about 6 months. At a recent visit, she tells the nurse that she has been interested in herbal therapies and wants to start taking St. John’s wort. Which response by the nurse is appropriate?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct response is D: “Taking St. John’s wort with Zoloft may cause severe interactions and is not recommended.” Rationale: 1. St. John's wort is known to affect serotonin levels, similar to SSRIs like Zoloft. 2. Combining St. John's wort with SSRIs can lead to serotonin syndrome, a potentially life-threatening condition. 3. The nurse should advise against combining these medications due to the risk of adverse interactions. 4. This response prioritizes patient safety and provides clear guidance on the potential harm of the combination. Summary: A: Incorrect. This response is too casual and does not address the potential interactions between St. John's wort and Zoloft. B: Incorrect. Encouraging the patient to stop Zoloft abruptly is not safe and overlooks the risk of interactions. C: Incorrect. This response is vague and does not emphasize the seriousness of potential interactions.
Question 2 of 5
During a routine checkup, a patient states that she is unable to take the prescribed antihistamine because of one of its most common adverse effects. The nurse suspects that which adverse effect has been bothering this patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Drowsiness. Antihistamines are known to cause drowsiness as a common adverse effect due to their sedative properties. This is why the patient may be unable to take the medication. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because constipation and abdominal cramps are not common adverse effects of antihistamines, and decreased libido is not typically associated with this type of medication.
Question 3 of 5
Pick out the appropriate alimentary route of administration when passage of drugs through liver is minimized:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Rectal administration bypasses the liver initially, reducing first-pass metabolism. 2. Oral administration (Option A) passes through the liver first, increasing metabolism. 3. Transdermal administration (Option B) bypasses the liver but is not as effective in minimizing liver metabolism as rectal. 4. Intraduodenal administration (Option D) directly enters the small intestine, interacting with the liver. Therefore, rectal administration is the appropriate route to minimize liver metabolism.
Question 4 of 5
Give the definition for a therapeutical dose:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The therapeutical dose is the amount of a substance required to produce the desired effect in most patients. This is because it aims to provide optimal benefits with minimal side effects. Choice A is incorrect as it refers to a subtherapeutic dose. Choice B is incorrect as it describes a toxic dose. Choice D is incorrect as it does not accurately define a therapeutical dose.
Question 5 of 5
Indicate the local anesthetic, which is a long-acting agent:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why B (Lidocaine) is the correct answer: 1. Lidocaine has a longer duration of action compared to Procaine and Mepivacaine. 2. Bupivacaine is a long-acting local anesthetic, but it has a longer duration of action than Lidocaine. 3. Therefore, among the given choices, Lidocaine is the long-acting agent with a duration of action longer than Procaine and Mepivacaine. Summary: A: Bupivacaine - Incorrect, longer-acting than Lidocaine. C: Procaine - Incorrect, shorter-acting than Lidocaine. D: Mepivacaine - Incorrect, shorter-acting than Lidocaine.