A patient has been taking iron supplements for anemia for 2 months. During a follow-up assessment, the nurse will observe for which therapeutic response?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased activity tolerance. Iron supplements help increase red blood cell production, improving oxygen delivery to tissues and reducing fatigue. Increased activity tolerance is a common therapeutic response to iron supplementation. Decreased weight (A) is not a direct therapeutic response to iron supplementation. Decreased palpitations (C) may improve with increased iron levels, but it is not the primary expected outcome. Increased appetite (D) is not a typical response to iron supplementation and may not be directly related to improved anemia symptoms.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lidocaine. Lidocaine is an acetanilide derivative because it contains an acetanilide group in its chemical structure, making it a member of this specific chemical class of local anesthetics. Tetracaine is an ester derivative, not an acetanilide derivative. Cocaine is a tropane alkaloid derivative. Procaine is an ester derivative, not an acetanilide derivative. Therefore, based on the chemical structure and classification of local anesthetics, lidocaine is the only correct option.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because pilocarpine actually increases secretory and motor activity of the gut. This is due to its parasympathomimetic effects on muscarinic receptors in the gastrointestinal tract. Choices A, B, and D are correct because pilocarpine is indeed a tertiary amine alkaloid, causes miosis and decreases intraocular pressure, and is used in the treatment of glaucoma due to its ability to increase aqueous humor outflow.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neostigmine. Neostigmine is a cholinesterase inhibitor that increases the levels of acetylcholine, helping counteract antimuscarinic effects. By inhibiting the breakdown of acetylcholine, neostigmine enhances cholinergic transmission, thereby reversing the antimuscarinic effects. Summary: - B: Hexametonium is a ganglionic blocker used to reduce sympathetic activity, not to treat antimuscarinic effects. - C: Homatropine is an anticholinergic drug that would exacerbate antimuscarinic effects, not treat them. - D: Acetylcholine itself would not be effective in treating antimuscarinic effects as it would be rapidly degraded by acetylcholinesterase.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Beta1 receptor stimulation primarily affects the heart. Stimulation leads to increased contractility, tachycardia, and increased conduction velocity in the atrioventricular node. However, bronchodilation is not a direct effect of beta1 receptor stimulation. Beta2 receptors are responsible for bronchodilation, not beta1 receptors. Therefore, choice B is incorrect. Choices A, C, and D are all correct effects of beta1 receptor stimulation.