A patient has been taking digoxin at home but took an accidental overdose and has developed toxicity. The patient has been admitted to the telemetry unit, where the physician has ordered digoxin immune Fab (Digifab). The patient asks the nurse why the medication is ordered. What is the nurse’s best response?

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Cardiovascular Drugs Pharmacology NCLEX Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

A patient has been taking digoxin at home but took an accidental overdose and has developed toxicity. The patient has been admitted to the telemetry unit, where the physician has ordered digoxin immune Fab (Digifab). The patient asks the nurse why the medication is ordered. What is the nurse’s best response?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D) This drug is an antidote to digoxin and will help to lower the blood levels. Rationale: Digoxin immune Fab (Digifab) is a specific antidote for digoxin toxicity. It works by binding to the excess digoxin in the body, forming a complex that is then excreted by the kidneys. This helps to lower the blood levels of digoxin and reverse its toxic effects, such as dangerously high heart rates or arrhythmias. Option A) It will increase your heart rate: This is incorrect because Digifab does not increase heart rate, but rather helps to stabilize and normalize the heart rhythm by reversing the toxic effects of digoxin. Option B) This drug helps to lower your potassium levels: This is incorrect as Digifab is not indicated for lowering potassium levels. Its main purpose is to counteract digoxin toxicity specifically. Option C) It helps to convert the irregular heart rhythm to a more normal rhythm: While Digifab can help to stabilize the heart rhythm by reversing digoxin toxicity, its primary action is to act as an antidote and lower digoxin blood levels. Educational context: Understanding the use of antidotes like Digifab is crucial in pharmacology, especially in managing medication overdoses and toxicities. Nurses need to be knowledgeable about antidotes to ensure prompt and effective intervention in such critical situations. This knowledge contributes to patient safety and positive outcomes in clinical practice.

Question 2 of 5

What does “pharmacokinetics” include?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Pharmacokinetics is a fundamental concept in pharmacology that refers to the study of how the body processes a drug. It includes absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion of a drug (ADME). In this context, option C, "Excretion of substances," is the correct answer. Option A, "Localization of drug action," is related to pharmacodynamics, not pharmacokinetics. Pharmacodynamics is the study of the effects of drugs on the body and the mechanisms of their action. Option B, "Mechanisms of drug action," pertains to how drugs produce their effects at the molecular or cellular level, which falls under pharmacodynamics. Option D, "Interaction of substances," is a broad term that can encompass both pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic interactions between drugs or substances in the body, but it is not a specific component of pharmacokinetics. Understanding pharmacokinetics is crucial for healthcare professionals as it influences the drug's concentration at the site of action, duration of action, and overall effectiveness. It also determines dosing regimens and helps prevent adverse effects. By mastering pharmacokinetics, healthcare providers can optimize drug therapy to achieve the desired therapeutic outcomes while minimizing risks to patients.

Question 3 of 5

Irreversible interaction of an antagonist with a receptor is due to:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In pharmacology, understanding the interaction between drugs and receptors is crucial. The irreversible interaction of an antagonist with a receptor is due to covalent bonds. Covalent bonds are strong chemical bonds formed by the sharing of electrons between atoms. When an antagonist forms a covalent bond with a receptor, it creates a long-lasting or permanent blockage of the receptor, leading to irreversible antagonism. Ionic bonds and hydrogen bonds are weaker than covalent bonds. Ionic bonds involve the transfer of electrons between atoms, while hydrogen bonds are formed between a hydrogen atom and an electronegative atom. These types of bonds are more easily broken compared to covalent bonds, resulting in reversible interactions between drugs and receptors. Educationally, understanding the different types of chemical bonds involved in drug-receptor interactions helps pharmacology students comprehend the mechanisms of action of various drugs. It also highlights the importance of considering the strength and duration of bond formation when designing drugs for specific therapeutic purposes. By grasping these concepts, students can better predict drug effects and interactions in clinical scenarios.

Question 4 of 5

Which of the following fibers is the first to be blocked?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In this question regarding the blockade of fibers, the correct answer is B) B and C fibers. The rationale behind this answer lies in the understanding of the classification of nerve fibers. Type B fibers are myelinated preganglionic autonomic fibers, responsible for carrying information to the autonomic ganglia. Type C fibers are unmyelinated postganglionic autonomic fibers, transmitting information away from the autonomic ganglia. Blocking B and C fibers would result in the interruption of autonomic functions, affecting processes like heart rate, blood pressure regulation, and other involuntary bodily functions. This makes them crucial targets for certain cardiovascular drugs. The other options are incorrect because: A) Type A alpha fibers are involved in motor function and somatic sensory information transmission. C) Type A beta fibers are responsible for proprioception and motor functions. D) Type A gamma fibers are involved in muscle tone regulation. Understanding the functions of different types of nerve fibers is essential in pharmacology, particularly in the context of cardiovascular drugs where precise targeting of specific fibers can lead to desired therapeutic outcomes. Blocking B and C fibers can have significant implications for cardiovascular health, making this knowledge crucial for healthcare professionals.

Question 5 of 5

Chronic long-term therapy of myasthenia is usually accomplished with:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In the treatment of myasthenia gravis, chronic long-term therapy is typically achieved with neostigmine (Option B). Neostigmine is a cholinesterase inhibitor that helps improve muscle strength by increasing the levels of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction. This pharmacological action is crucial in managing the symptoms of myasthenia gravis, a condition characterized by muscle weakness and fatigue due to autoimmune-mediated destruction of acetylcholine receptors. Option A, edrophonium, is a short-acting cholinesterase inhibitor used for diagnostic purposes in myasthenia gravis to differentiate between myasthenic and cholinergic crises. It is not suitable for chronic therapy due to its short duration of action. Option C, echothiophate, is a long-acting irreversible cholinesterase inhibitor primarily used in the treatment of glaucoma. It is not indicated for myasthenia gravis. Option D, carbachol, is a non-selective cholinergic agonist mainly used in ophthalmology for conditions like glaucoma and intraocular pressure reduction. It is not a common choice for myasthenia gravis therapy. Understanding the appropriate pharmacological agents for specific conditions like myasthenia gravis is vital for healthcare professionals, especially in the context of the NCLEX exam where clinical decision-making skills are tested. Neostigmine's mechanism of action and suitability for chronic therapy make it the correct choice in managing myasthenia gravis effectively over the long term.

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