A patient has been instructed to take one enteric-coated low-dose aspirin a day as part of therapy to prevent strokes. The nurse will provide which instruction when providing patient teaching about this medication?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Taking with water and food helps prevent stomach irritation. 2. Enteric-coated aspirin can cause irritation if taken on an empty stomach. 3. Water helps with swallowing and food helps with absorption. 4. Ensuring proper intake enhances its effectiveness in stroke prevention. Summary: A is incorrect as aspirin is enteric-coated for a reason, not requiring an empty stomach. B is incorrect as bleeding is a potential risk with aspirin therapy. D is incorrect as crushing coated tablets can alter their efficacy.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Microsomal oxidation involves the addition of functional groups, such as hydroxyl groups, to a drug molecule, increasing its polarity, ionization, and water solubility. This can enhance the drug's elimination from the body through renal excretion. Choice A is incorrect as microsomal oxidation does not always result in inactivation. Choice B is incorrect because microsomal oxidation can sometimes increase compound toxicity by producing reactive metabolites. Choice D is incorrect as microsomal oxidation typically increases water solubility, not lipid solubility, of a drug.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a teratogenic action refers to substances or factors that can negatively affect the fetus during pregnancy, leading to fetal malformations or abnormalities. This is a well-established concept in the field of developmental biology and teratology. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not specifically pertain to the impact on fetal development, which is the defining characteristic of teratogenic actions. Option A focuses on the liver, Option C on the blood system, and Option D on the kidneys, none of which directly relate to the concept of teratogenicity.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because bupivacaine is known for its high cardiotoxicity compared to other local anesthetics. This is due to its ability to cause cardiac arrhythmias at lower doses. Choice B is correct as bupivacaine does have an amide linkage. Choice C is correct as it is a long-acting drug, providing prolonged anesthesia. Choice D is correct as an intravenous injection of bupivacaine can indeed lead to seizures due to its central nervous system toxicity.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Atropine is rarely used for peptic ulcer treatment due to its adverse effects, which include slow gastric emptying leading to prolonged exposure of the ulcer bed to acid, low efficiency requiring large doses, and other possible side effects. Therefore, the correct answer is D as it encompasses all the reasons why atropine is not commonly used for peptic ulcer treatment. Choices A, B, and C individually address specific drawbacks of atropine, but only D covers all the reasons comprehensively.