ATI RN
foundation of nursing questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient has been diagnosed with serous otitis media for the third time in the past year. How should the nurse best interpret this patients health status?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Serous otitis media is common in children due to eustachian tube dysfunction, not usually related to systemic infections. Step 2: Recurrent infections may indicate age-related changes like decreased eustachian tube function. Step 3: Age-related physiologic changes can lead to poor drainage, causing recurrent otitis media. Step 4: Therefore, choice A is correct as it aligns with the typical presentation of serous otitis media in the context of age. Summary: Choice B is incorrect as there is no indication for temporary mobility restriction. Choice C is incorrect as serous otitis media does not typically warrant assessment for nasopharyngeal cancer. Choice D is incorrect as blood cultures are not typically indicated for serous otitis media.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is aware of the need to assess patients risks for anaphylaxis. What health care procedure constitutes the highest risk for anaphylaxis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Computed tomography with contrast solution. This procedure involves the use of contrast agents that can trigger anaphylaxis due to the patient's allergic reaction to the contrast solution. Contrast solutions contain substances like iodine, which can cause severe allergic reactions in some individuals. Anaphylaxis is a life-threatening allergic reaction that can occur rapidly and requires immediate intervention. Assessing the risk for anaphylaxis during this procedure is crucial to prevent any potential harm to the patient. Incorrect choices: A: Administration of the measles-mumps-rubella (MMR) vaccine - While allergic reactions can occur with vaccines, the risk of anaphylaxis with MMR vaccine is lower compared to the contrast solution used in CT scans. B: Rapid administration of intravenous fluids - Rapid IV fluid administration can cause fluid overload or electrolyte imbalances, but it is not typically associated with triggering anaphylaxis. D: Administration of nebulized bronchodil
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is teaching a health class about thegastrointestinal tract. The nurse will explain that which portion of the digestive tract absorbs most of the nutrients?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Duodenum. The duodenum is the first part of the small intestine where most of the digestion and absorption of nutrients occurs. It receives partially digested food from the stomach and mixes it with bile and pancreatic enzymes to break down nutrients. The villi in the duodenum increase the surface area for absorption. The other choices (A: Ileum, B: Cecum, C: Stomach) are incorrect because the ileum and cecum are parts of the small intestine where some absorption occurs but not as much as in the duodenum. The stomach primarily digests food and does not absorb many nutrients.
Question 4 of 9
The patient is asking the nurse about the best way to stay healthy. The nurse explains to the patient which teaching points? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice A is correct: 1. Increasing physical activity helps in maintaining a healthy weight and overall health. 2. Regular exercise can reduce the risk of chronic diseases like heart disease and diabetes. 3. Physical activity improves mental health and overall well-being. 4. Exercise boosts immunity and helps in managing stress levels. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B. Keeping total fat intake to 10% or less is a specific dietary recommendation and not a comprehensive approach to staying healthy. C. Maintaining body weight in a healthy range is important but does not encompass all aspects of staying healthy. D. Choosing and preparing foods with little salt is a specific dietary recommendation and does not address the importance of physical activity in staying healthy.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse on the medicalsurgical unit is reviewing discharge instructions with a patient who has a history of glaucoma. The nurse should anticipate the use of what medications?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cholinergics. Glaucoma is a condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure due to impaired drainage of aqueous humor. Cholinergics help to constrict the pupil and improve the outflow of aqueous humor, thus reducing intraocular pressure. This medication class is commonly used to manage glaucoma. A: Potassium-sparing diuretics are not typically used in the treatment of glaucoma. They are mainly used to manage conditions like hypertension and heart failure. C: Antibiotics are not indicated for the routine management of glaucoma. They are used to treat infections. D: Loop diuretics are not commonly used in the treatment of glaucoma. They are primarily used to manage conditions like edema and hypertension.
Question 6 of 9
A 30-year-old patient has come to the clinic for her yearly examination. The patient asks the nurse about ovarian cancer. What should the nurse state when describing risk factors for ovarian cancer?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: The nurse should inform the patient that most cases of ovarian cancer are considered to be random, with no obvious causation. This is the correct answer because the exact cause of ovarian cancer is not well understood, and the majority of cases are not linked to specific risk factors. Step 2: Choice A is incorrect because the use of oral contraceptives actually decreases the risk of ovarian cancer. Step 3: Choice B is incorrect because tobacco use is not a major risk factor for ovarian cancer. It is primarily associated with lung and other types of cancer. Step 4: Choice D is incorrect because while a family history of ovarian cancer can increase the risk, the majority of women diagnosed with ovarian cancer do not have a family history of the disease.
Question 7 of 9
The registered nurse taking shift report learns that an assigned patient is blind. How should the nurse best communicate with this patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because providing instructions in simple, clear terms is crucial when communicating with a blind patient. This method allows the patient to understand information effectively without visual cues. Choice B is incorrect because a firm, loud voice may startle the patient. Choice C is incorrect as touching a patient without consent may be inappropriate. Choice D is incorrect because stating name and role without context may confuse the patient.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is describing some of the major characteristics of cancer to a patient who has recently received a diagnosis of malignant melanoma. When differentiating between benign and malignant cancer cells, the nurse should explain differences in which of the following aspects? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rate of growth. Malignant cancer cells grow and divide rapidly compared to benign cells. Benign cells are usually slow-growing and have a well-defined border, while malignant cells grow uncontrollably and invade surrounding tissues. The other choices are incorrect because: B: Ability to cause death - Both benign and malignant cells have the potential to cause harm, but the key difference lies in their growth rate and invasiveness. C: Size of cells - The size of cells does not necessarily differentiate between benign and malignant cells. D: Cell contents - While malignant cells may have abnormal cell contents, this is not a defining characteristic when differentiating between benign and malignant cells. E: Ability to spread - While the ability to spread is a key characteristic of malignant cells, the primary differentiating factor in this question is the rate of growth.
Question 9 of 9
A patient has been referred to the breast clinic after her most recent mammogram revealed the presence of a lump. The lump is found to be a small, well-defined nodule in the right breast. The oncology nurse should recognize the likelihood of what treatment?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lumpectomy and radiation. For a small, well-defined nodule in the breast, lumpectomy (removal of the lump) followed by radiation therapy is usually the treatment of choice for early-stage breast cancer. This approach aims to preserve the breast while ensuring effective treatment. Partial mastectomy (B) involves removing a larger portion of the breast tissue and is not typically necessary for a small, well-defined nodule. Chemotherapy (C) is generally used for more advanced stages of breast cancer or when the cancer has spread beyond the breast. Total mastectomy (D) is considered when the cancer is more extensive or in cases where lumpectomy is not feasible.