Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

foundation of nursing questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

A patient has been diagnosed with serous otitis media for the third time in the past year. How should the nurse best interpret this patients health status?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Serous otitis media is common in children due to eustachian tube dysfunction, not usually related to systemic infections. Step 2: Recurrent infections may indicate age-related changes like decreased eustachian tube function. Step 3: Age-related physiologic changes can lead to poor drainage, causing recurrent otitis media. Step 4: Therefore, choice A is correct as it aligns with the typical presentation of serous otitis media in the context of age. Summary: Choice B is incorrect as there is no indication for temporary mobility restriction. Choice C is incorrect as serous otitis media does not typically warrant assessment for nasopharyngeal cancer. Choice D is incorrect as blood cultures are not typically indicated for serous otitis media.

Question 2 of 5

After providing care, a nurse charts in the patient’srecord. Which entry will the nurse document?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because documenting the skin condition is an objective assessment that provides vital information about the patient's health status. Pale and cool skin may indicate poor perfusion or circulation issues. This observation is crucial for monitoring the patient's condition and identifying any potential concerns. Choices A, B, and C are subjective and do not provide specific or relevant information related to the patient's overall health status or response to care. Without objective data like skin appearance, it would be challenging to assess the patient's condition accurately.

Question 3 of 5

The nurse is caring for a patient with a diagnosis of vulvar cancer who has returned from the PACU after undergoing a wide excision of the vulva. How should this patients analgesic regimen be best managed?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Scheduled analgesia should be administered around-the-clock to prevent pain. After undergoing a wide excision of the vulva, the patient is likely to experience significant pain. Scheduled analgesia ensures that the patient receives pain relief consistently, preventing pain from becoming severe. This approach helps to maintain a therapeutic level of pain control and improves patient comfort and satisfaction. Choice A is incorrect because withholding analgesia until the pain becomes unbearable can lead to unnecessary suffering and poor pain management. Choice C is incorrect as PRN dosing may result in inadequate pain relief and fluctuations in pain control. Choice D is incorrect as opioids are often necessary for postoperative pain management, and NSAIDs alone may not provide sufficient relief for the level of pain associated with a wide excision surgery.

Question 4 of 5

The patient with cardiovascular disease is receiving dietary instructions from the nurse. Which information from the patient indicates teaching is successful?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Correct Answer: B - Eat fish at least 5 times per week. Rationale: 1. Fish is rich in omega-3 fatty acids, which are beneficial for heart health. 2. Eating fish frequently can help reduce the risk of cardiovascular diseases. 3. Consuming fish aligns with dietary recommendations for cardiovascular health. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Maintaining carbohydrate intake is important, but it may not specifically indicate success in cardiovascular disease management. C: Limiting trans fats is crucial, but it alone may not indicate overall success in dietary management for cardiovascular disease. D: Avoiding high-fiber foods is not recommended, as fiber is beneficial for heart health and overall well-being.

Question 5 of 5

A nurse is planning the postoperative care of a patient who is scheduled for radical prostatectomy. What intraoperative position will place the patient at particular risk for the development of deep vein thrombosis postoperatively?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Lithotomy position. In lithotomy position, the patient's legs are elevated and positioned higher than the heart, which can lead to venous stasis and increase the risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). This position compresses the femoral veins, hindering blood flow and predisposing the patient to DVT formation. Summary: A: Fowlers position - Not typically associated with increased DVT risk. B: Prone position - Not typically associated with increased DVT risk. C: Supine position - Generally considered a safe position regarding DVT risk.

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