A patient has been diagnosed with angina and will be given a prescription for sublingual nitroglycerin tablets. When teaching the patient how to use sublingual nitroglycerin, the nurse will include which instruction?

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RN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 2 Quiz Questions

Question 1 of 9

A patient has been diagnosed with angina and will be given a prescription for sublingual nitroglycerin tablets. When teaching the patient how to use sublingual nitroglycerin, the nurse will include which instruction?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: When teaching a patient how to use sublingual nitroglycerin tablets, the nurse should include the instruction that if the chest pain is not relieved after one tablet, the patient should call 911 immediately. This is because persistent chest pain could indicate a more serious cardiac event, such as a myocardial infarction, that requires prompt medical attention. It is important for the patient to seek emergency help if the chest pain is not relieved after taking one sublingual nitroglycerin tablet. Taking multiple doses without relief of symptoms can be dangerous and delay appropriate medical intervention.

Question 2 of 9

How can Ondansetron be administered? Select all that apply.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Ondansetron, commonly used to prevent nausea and vomiting, can be administered either orally (PO) or intravenously (IV). Both routes of administration are effective in delivering the medication to achieve the desired therapeutic effects. While options C (Subcutaneous) and D (IM) are not typically used for ondansetron administration, the correct answers are A (PO) and B (IV).

Question 3 of 9

Which one of the following pairs of 'drug/mechanism of action' is most accurate?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Lithium's mood-stabilizing effect in bipolar disorder involves inhibiting inositol monophosphatase, reducing inositol recycling and dampening overactive phosphoinositide signaling, a unique mechanism. Carbamazepine blocks sodium channels, not GABA facilitation (that's barbiturates). Ethosuximide inhibits T-type calcium channels in thalamic neurons, not sodium channels, to control absence seizures. Phenelzine, an MAOI, inhibits monoamine oxidase, not dopa decarboxylase (carbidopa does that). Procaine, a local anesthetic, blocks sodium channels, not T-type calcium channels. Lithium's inositol depletion is well-established, aligning with its therapeutic role and distinguishing it as the most accurate pairing here.

Question 4 of 9

The following drugs produce a prolonged action due to enterohepatic recirculation:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Diazepam undergoes enterohepatic recirculation, contributing to its prolonged duration of action.

Question 5 of 9

A patient is taking azithromycin. Which nursing intervention(s) would the nurse plan to implement for this patient? (Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Azithromycin is a macrolide antibiotic that can cause hepatotoxicity, so periodic liver function tests are necessary. Intravenous azithromycin should be diluted as per protocol, typically in 250-500 mL of fluid, not 50 mL. Loose stools or diarrhea may indicate Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea, a serious adverse effect. Superinfections, such as oral thrush or vaginal yeast infections, should be reported promptly. Teaching the patient to take the oral drug 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals ensures optimal absorption. Avoiding antacids around the time of administration prevents interference with absorption.

Question 6 of 9

When reading about a drug, the nurse learns it has a median toxic dose of 50 mg. The patient has been receiving 60 mg of the drug. What analysis does the nurse make?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Median toxic dose (TD50) is where 50% show toxicity-60 mg exceeds this, raising adverse effect risk (e.g., toxicity signs), not lethality for all. Effect may persist, not fail. Efficacy/potency are defined, just exceeded. Lethal dose (LD50) differs-60 mg isn't half lethal. Excess drives risk, per pharmacodynamics.

Question 7 of 9

The patient with schizophrenia is sitting quietly in a chair. The patient does not respond much to what is happening and has a lack of interest in the environment. How does the nurse interpret this assessment?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Schizophrenia involves positive symptoms (e.g., hallucinations) and negative symptoms (e.g., apathy, withdrawal). The patient's quiet demeanor, lack of responsiveness, and disinterest align with negative symptoms, which diminish normal behaviors like motivation or social engagement. Depression might present similarly but isn't assumed without further evidence like sadness or hopelessness. Hearing voices suggests positive symptoms, but the scenario lacks indicators like distractedness. Positive symptoms involve added behaviors (e.g., delusions), not subtraction, as seen here. The nurse interprets this based on schizophrenia's symptomology, recognizing negative symptoms as a core feature, making choice D the most accurate clinical interpretation.

Question 8 of 9

During pharmacology class, the student nurse asks the nursing instructor how students will ever learn about the individual antibiotic drugs since there are so many. What is the best response by the nursing instructor?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Learning a representative (prototype) drug from each antibiotic class simplifies understanding by focusing on shared traits-mechanisms, effects, and side effects-reducing the burden of memorizing every drug. Mnemonics aid recall but don't teach concepts. Flow charts organize but lack depth. Categorizing is broad, while prototypes offer a practical, foundational approach, widely used in pharmacology education for mastery.

Question 9 of 9

A 62-year-old man with Parkinson's disease on levodopa and carbidopa presents to his primary care physician for follow-up. He is following his prescribed course of medications. He is stable in terms of his motor function but recently has begun to have visual and auditory hallucinations. What is the most likely explanation for these findings?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Hallucinations in a Parkinson's patient on levodopa/carbidopa suggest a medication-related issue. Drug toxicity is correct-levodopa increases dopamine, and excess in non-motor areas (e.g., mesolimbic) can cause hallucinations, especially with long-term use or dose accumulation. Overactivity at basal ganglia improves motor symptoms, not hallucinations. Subtherapeutic dosing would worsen motor control, not cause this. Dementia or infection (E) could contribute, but hallucinations align more with levodopa's known side effect profile. Carbidopa reduces peripheral effects, but central dopamine excess remains possible, making toxicity the likely culprit in this stable motor context.

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