A patient has been brought to the emergency department by EMS after being found unresponsive. Rapid assessment reveals anaphylaxis as a potential cause of the patients condition. The care team should attempt to assess for what potential causes of anaphylaxis? Select all that apply.

Questions 101

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

foundation of nursing questions Questions

Question 1 of 9

A patient has been brought to the emergency department by EMS after being found unresponsive. Rapid assessment reveals anaphylaxis as a potential cause of the patients condition. The care team should attempt to assess for what potential causes of anaphylaxis? Select all that apply.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Foods. Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can be triggered by foods, medications, insect stings, and other allergens. In this scenario, assessing for potential food allergies is crucial as food is one of the most common triggers for anaphylaxis. Foods like nuts, shellfish, and eggs are common culprits. Medications and insect stings (choices B and C) are also important triggers to consider in the assessment. Autoimmunity (choice D) is not a direct cause of anaphylaxis, as it involves the immune system attacking the body's own tissues rather than reacting to external allergens. Environmental pollutants (choice E) may trigger respiratory symptoms but are not typically associated with anaphylaxis.

Question 2 of 9

A patient got a sliver of glass in his eye when a glass container at work fell and shattered. The glass had to be surgically removed and the patient is about to be discharged home. The patient asks the nurse for a topical anesthetic for the pain in his eye. What should the nurse respond?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Overuse of topical anesthetics can soften the cornea and damage the eye. Topical anesthetics numb the eye, masking pain and potentially leading to overuse. This can prevent the patient from recognizing potential issues like infection or further injury. Additionally, prolonged use can interfere with the cornea's ability to heal properly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the specific risks associated with using topical anesthetics in the eye. Option B focuses on peripheral vision loss, which is not a direct consequence of using topical anesthetics. Choice C mentions controlled substances, which is not relevant to the situation. Option D acknowledges the patient's request but does not educate the patient on the potential harm of overusing topical anesthetics.

Question 3 of 9

A nurse is providing care to a culturally diversepopulation. Which action indicates the nurse is successful in the role of providing culturally congruent care?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because providing care that fits the patient's valued life patterns and set of meanings demonstrates cultural congruence. This approach acknowledges and respects the patient's cultural background, beliefs, and preferences. It promotes patient-centered care and enhances communication and trust between the nurse and the patient. Choice B is incorrect because care based on predetermined criteria may not align with the patient's individual cultural needs. Choice C is incorrect as it does not prioritize the patient's values and preferences. Choice D is incorrect because providing care based solely on the values of the professional health care system may not consider the cultural diversity of the patient population.

Question 4 of 9

What should the nurse recognize as evidence that the patient is recovering from preeclampsia?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step 1: Increased urine output indicates improved kidney function, a key indicator of recovery from preeclampsia. Step 2: Adequate urine output helps regulate blood pressure and reduce swelling. Step 3: Consistent urine output >100 mL/hour signifies the kidneys are functioning properly. Step 4: Therefore, C is the correct answer as it directly reflects recovery progress from preeclampsia. Summary: A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly correlate with kidney function or recovery from preeclampsia.

Question 5 of 9

A 42-year-old man has come to the clinic for an annual physical. The nurse notes in the patients history that his father was treated for breast cancer. What should the nurse provide to the patient before he leaves the clinic?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A referral for a mammogram. Given the family history of breast cancer in the patient's father, the nurse should recommend a mammogram as a preventive measure due to increased risk. Mammograms are effective in detecting breast cancer early, especially in individuals with a family history. This can help in early diagnosis and timely intervention if needed. B: Instructions about breast self-examination (BSE) can be helpful, but in this case, a mammogram is a more definitive screening tool for high-risk individuals. C: A referral to a surgeon is not necessary at this point as the patient does not exhibit any symptoms of breast cancer. D: Referral to a support group may be beneficial for emotional support, but the priority should be on proactive screening measures like a mammogram.

Question 6 of 9

The nurses plan of care for a patient with stage 3 HIV addresses the diagnosis of Risk for Impaired Skin Integrity Related to Candidiasis. What nursing intervention best addresses this risk?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Providing thorough oral care before and after meals. This addresses the risk for impaired skin integrity related to Candidiasis in patients with stage 3 HIV by preventing oral Candidiasis, a common fungal infection. Poor oral hygiene can lead to Candidiasis, which can spread to the skin. Thorough oral care reduces the risk of oral Candidiasis, thereby preventing skin integrity issues. Administering prophylactic antibiotics (B) is not indicated for preventing Candidiasis. Promoting nutrition and fluid intake (C) is important for overall health but does not directly address the risk of impaired skin integrity. Applying skin emollients (D) may help with skin dryness but does not directly address the underlying cause of Candidiasis.

Question 7 of 9

A nurse provides care on a bone marrow transplant unit and is preparing a female patient for a hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT) the following day. What information should the nurse emphasize to the patients family and friends?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Do not visit if you've had a recent infection. This is crucial to prevent the transmission of infections to the patient, who will have a compromised immune system post-HSCT. Family and friends with recent infections can pose a serious risk to the patient's health. Choice A is incorrect because it instills fear and negativity in the family without providing any tangible benefits. Choice B is incorrect as fasting is not typically required before a HSCT and can be harmful to the patient's nutritional status. Choice C is incorrect as wearing a hospital gown is generally not necessary for visitors, unless specified by the healthcare team for infection control purposes.

Question 8 of 9

Which major neonatal complication is carefully monitored after the birth of the infant of a diabetic mother?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypoglycemia. Infants of diabetic mothers are at risk for hypoglycemia due to excessive insulin production in response to high glucose levels in utero. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial to prevent hypoglycemia-related complications. B: Hypercalcemia is not a major neonatal complication seen in infants of diabetic mothers. C: Hypoinsulinemia refers to low levels of insulin, which is not typically a concern in infants of diabetic mothers. D: Hypobilirubinemia is not a common complication in infants of diabetic mothers. In summary, monitoring for hypoglycemia is essential in infants of diabetic mothers to prevent potential complications.

Question 9 of 9

The patient with cardiovascular disease is receiving dietary instructions from the nurse. Which information from the patient indicates teaching is successful?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Correct Answer: B - Eat fish at least 5 times per week. Rationale: 1. Fish is rich in omega-3 fatty acids, which are beneficial for heart health. 2. Eating fish frequently can help reduce the risk of cardiovascular diseases. 3. Consuming fish aligns with dietary recommendations for cardiovascular health. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Maintaining carbohydrate intake is important, but it may not specifically indicate success in cardiovascular disease management. C: Limiting trans fats is crucial, but it alone may not indicate overall success in dietary management for cardiovascular disease. D: Avoiding high-fiber foods is not recommended, as fiber is beneficial for heart health and overall well-being.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days