ATI RN
foundation of nursing questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient has been brought to the emergency department by EMS after being found unresponsive. Rapid assessment reveals anaphylaxis as a potential cause of the patients condition. The care team should attempt to assess for what potential causes of anaphylaxis? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Foods. Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can be triggered by foods, medications, insect stings, and other allergens. In this scenario, assessing for potential food allergies is crucial as food is one of the most common triggers for anaphylaxis. Foods like nuts, shellfish, and eggs are common culprits. Medications and insect stings (choices B and C) are also important triggers to consider in the assessment. Autoimmunity (choice D) is not a direct cause of anaphylaxis, as it involves the immune system attacking the body's own tissues rather than reacting to external allergens. Environmental pollutants (choice E) may trigger respiratory symptoms but are not typically associated with anaphylaxis.
Question 2 of 9
A patient has been brought to the emergency department by EMS after being found unresponsive. Rapid assessment reveals anaphylaxis as a potential cause of the patients condition. The care team should attempt to assess for what potential causes of anaphylaxis? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Foods. Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can be triggered by foods, medications, insect stings, and other allergens. In this scenario, assessing for potential food allergies is crucial as food is one of the most common triggers for anaphylaxis. Foods like nuts, shellfish, and eggs are common culprits. Medications and insect stings (choices B and C) are also important triggers to consider in the assessment. Autoimmunity (choice D) is not a direct cause of anaphylaxis, as it involves the immune system attacking the body's own tissues rather than reacting to external allergens. Environmental pollutants (choice E) may trigger respiratory symptoms but are not typically associated with anaphylaxis.
Question 3 of 9
Which major neonatal complication is carefully monitored after the birth of the infant of a diabetic mother?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypoglycemia. Infants of diabetic mothers are at risk for hypoglycemia due to excessive insulin production in response to high glucose levels in utero. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial to prevent hypoglycemia-related complications. B: Hypercalcemia is not a major neonatal complication seen in infants of diabetic mothers. C: Hypoinsulinemia refers to low levels of insulin, which is not typically a concern in infants of diabetic mothers. D: Hypobilirubinemia is not a common complication in infants of diabetic mothers. In summary, monitoring for hypoglycemia is essential in infants of diabetic mothers to prevent potential complications.
Question 4 of 9
A child has been transported to the emergency department (ED) after a severe allergic reaction. The ED nurse is evaluating the patients respiratory status. How should the nurse evaluate the patients respiratory status? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale: Assessing breath sounds is crucial in evaluating respiratory status as it helps identify any signs of airway obstruction or respiratory distress. This includes listening for wheezing, crackles, or diminished breath sounds. Lung function testing (A) may not be feasible in an acute emergency situation. Oxygen saturation (C) is important but does not provide a comprehensive assessment of respiratory status. Monitoring respiratory pattern (D) and assessing respiratory rate (E) are important but do not directly assess breath sounds, which are vital in identifying immediate respiratory issues.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is assessing a 28-year-old man with HIV who has been admitted with pneumonia. In assessing the patient, which of the following observations takes immediate priority?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tachypnea and restlessness. This observation takes immediate priority as it indicates potential respiratory distress, a common complication of pneumonia in HIV patients. Tachypnea can be a sign of hypoxia, while restlessness may indicate increased work of breathing. Prompt intervention is crucial to prevent respiratory failure. Choice A: Oral temperature of 100F is not an immediate priority as it is within normal range and may not directly impact the patient's immediate condition. Choice C: Frequent loose stools may suggest gastrointestinal issues but are not as urgent as respiratory distress in this scenario. Choice D: Weight loss of 1 pound since yesterday, while relevant in monitoring the patient's condition, does not require immediate intervention compared to respiratory distress.
Question 6 of 9
Which data found on a patient’s health history would place her at risk for an ectopic pregnancy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Recurrent pelvic infections. Pelvic infections can lead to scarring and blockage of the fallopian tubes, increasing the risk of ectopic pregnancy. Ovarian cysts and oral contraceptives are not directly linked to ectopic pregnancies. Heavy menstrual flow does not inherently increase the risk of ectopic pregnancy.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse care plan for a patient with AIDS includes the diagnosis of Risk for Impaired Skin Integrity. What nursing intervention should be included in the plan of care?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Keep the patient's bed linens free of wrinkles. This intervention is important in preventing pressure ulcers, a common complication in patients with impaired skin integrity. Wrinkles in bed linens can create pressure points on the skin, leading to skin breakdown. By keeping the bed linens smooth and wrinkle-free, the patient's skin is protected from excessive pressure, reducing the risk of impaired skin integrity. A: Maximizing fluid intake is important for overall health but is not directly related to preventing impaired skin integrity. B: Providing total parenteral nutrition may support the patient's nutritional needs but does not specifically address the risk of impaired skin integrity. D: Providing snug clothing can increase friction and pressure on the skin, potentially worsening the risk of impaired skin integrity.
Question 8 of 9
A patient got a sliver of glass in his eye when a glass container at work fell and shattered. The glass had to be surgically removed and the patient is about to be discharged home. The patient asks the nurse for a topical anesthetic for the pain in his eye. What should the nurse respond?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Overuse of topical anesthetics can soften the cornea and damage the eye. Topical anesthetics numb the eye, masking pain and potentially leading to overuse. This can prevent the patient from recognizing potential issues like infection or further injury. Additionally, prolonged use can interfere with the cornea's ability to heal properly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the specific risks associated with using topical anesthetics in the eye. Option B focuses on peripheral vision loss, which is not a direct consequence of using topical anesthetics. Choice C mentions controlled substances, which is not relevant to the situation. Option D acknowledges the patient's request but does not educate the patient on the potential harm of overusing topical anesthetics.
Question 9 of 9
The registered nurse taking shift report learns that an assigned patient is blind. How should the nurse best communicate with this patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because providing instructions in simple, clear terms is crucial when communicating with a blind patient. This method allows the patient to understand information effectively without visual cues. Choice B is incorrect because a firm, loud voice may startle the patient. Choice C is incorrect as touching a patient without consent may be inappropriate. Choice D is incorrect because stating name and role without context may confuse the patient.