ATI RN
foundation of nursing questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient has been brought to the emergency department by EMS after being found unresponsive. Rapid assessment reveals anaphylaxis as a potential cause of the patients condition. The care team should attempt to assess for what potential causes of anaphylaxis? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Foods. Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can be triggered by foods, medications, insect stings, and other allergens. In this scenario, assessing for potential food allergies is crucial as food is one of the most common triggers for anaphylaxis. Foods like nuts, shellfish, and eggs are common culprits. Medications and insect stings (choices B and C) are also important triggers to consider in the assessment. Autoimmunity (choice D) is not a direct cause of anaphylaxis, as it involves the immune system attacking the body's own tissues rather than reacting to external allergens. Environmental pollutants (choice E) may trigger respiratory symptoms but are not typically associated with anaphylaxis.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is teaching preventative measures for otitis externa to a group of older adults. What action should the nurse encourage?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rinsing the ears with normal saline after swimming. This is because rinsing with normal saline helps to remove excess moisture and debris, preventing bacterial growth that can lead to otitis externa. Avoiding loud noises (B) is important for overall ear health but does not specifically prevent otitis externa. Instilling antibiotic ointments regularly (C) is not recommended as it can disrupt the ear's natural flora. Avoiding cotton swabs (D) is important to prevent injury but does not directly prevent otitis externa.
Question 3 of 9
The public health nurse is addressing eye health and vision protection during an educational event. What statement by a participant best demonstrates an understanding of threats to vision?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because reviewing current medications with a pharmacist is crucial in understanding potential threats to vision. Some medications can have side effects that impact eye health. This proactive approach shows an understanding of how medication can affect vision. Choice A is incorrect because while avoiding direct sunlight is important for eye health, it does not address other potential threats. Choice B is incorrect because regular exercise, while beneficial for overall health, does not directly relate to understanding threats to vision. Choice D is incorrect because monitoring blood pressure is important for cardiovascular health but does not specifically address threats to vision.
Question 4 of 9
A patient is being discharged home after a hysterectomy. When providing discharge education for this patient, the nurse has cautioned the patient against sitting for long periods. This advice addresses the patients risk of what surgical complication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Venous thromboembolism. After a hysterectomy, patients are at increased risk for developing blood clots due to decreased mobility and pressure on the veins. Sitting for long periods can further increase this risk by slowing blood flow. Pudendal nerve damage (A) is not a common complication of hysterectomy. Fatigue (B) is a common postoperative symptom but not directly related to sitting for long periods. Hemorrhage (D) is a potential complication of hysterectomy but is not specifically related to sitting for long periods.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is teaching a health class about thegastrointestinal tract. The nurse will explain that which portion of the digestive tract absorbs most of the nutrients?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Duodenum. The duodenum is the first part of the small intestine where most of the digestion and absorption of nutrients occurs. It receives partially digested food from the stomach and mixes it with bile and pancreatic enzymes to break down nutrients. The villi in the duodenum increase the surface area for absorption. The other choices (A: Ileum, B: Cecum, C: Stomach) are incorrect because the ileum and cecum are parts of the small intestine where some absorption occurs but not as much as in the duodenum. The stomach primarily digests food and does not absorb many nutrients.
Question 6 of 9
A woman aged 48 years comes to the clinic because she has discovered a lump in her breast. After diagnostic testing, the woman receives a diagnosis of breast cancer. The woman asks the nurse when her teenage daughters should begin mammography. What is the nurses best advice?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Age 48. This recommendation aligns with the current guidelines from major health organizations, such as the American Cancer Society, which suggest that women at average risk should start regular mammograms at age 45 to 54. Screening before age 45 may lead to unnecessary procedures due to false positives. Beginning at age 48 allows for early detection without subjecting the daughters to unnecessary testing at a younger age. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they suggest starting mammography at younger ages than recommended, which can increase the likelihood of false positives and unnecessary interventions.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse provides care on a bone marrow transplant unit and is preparing a female patient for a hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT) the following day. What information should the nurse emphasize to the patients family and friends?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Do not visit if you've had a recent infection. This is crucial to prevent the transmission of infections to the patient, who will have a compromised immune system post-HSCT. Family and friends with recent infections can pose a serious risk to the patient's health. Choice A is incorrect because it instills fear and negativity in the family without providing any tangible benefits. Choice B is incorrect as fasting is not typically required before a HSCT and can be harmful to the patient's nutritional status. Choice C is incorrect as wearing a hospital gown is generally not necessary for visitors, unless specified by the healthcare team for infection control purposes.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is caring for a 39-year-old woman with a family history of breast cancer. She requested a breast tumor marking test and the results have come back positive. As a result, the patient is requesting a bilateral mastectomy. This surgery is an example of what type of oncologic surgery?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Prophylactic surgery. Prophylactic surgery involves removing tissue at risk of developing cancer to prevent the occurrence of cancer. In this case, the patient has a family history of breast cancer and has tested positive for a breast tumor marker, indicating a high risk of developing breast cancer. By opting for a bilateral mastectomy, the patient is proactively removing breast tissue to reduce her risk of developing breast cancer. Salvage surgery (A) is performed to remove cancer that has recurred after initial treatment. Palliative surgery (B) aims to alleviate symptoms and improve quality of life but is not curative. Reconstructive surgery (D) is performed to restore the appearance and function of a body part after cancer treatment but is not the primary purpose in this scenario.
Question 9 of 9
A patient with Huntington disease has just been admitted to a long-term care facility. The charge nurse is creating a care plan for this patient. Nutritional management for a patient with Huntington disease should be informed by what principle?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D - The patient will benefit from a low-protein diet. Patients with Huntington disease often experience difficulty swallowing and may have involuntary movements, leading to weight loss. A low-protein diet can help manage these symptoms and reduce the risk of aspiration pneumonia. This diet can also help control the chorea movements associated with the disease. Choice A is incorrect as patients with Huntington disease often have reduced appetite due to swallowing difficulties. Choice B is incorrect as enzyme supplements are not typically indicated in the management of Huntington disease. Choice C is incorrect as a clear liquid diet is not suitable for meeting the nutritional needs of a patient with Huntington disease, who may already be at risk for malnutrition.