A patient has been admitted to the emergency department for an overdose of oral benzodiazepines. He is very drowsy but still responsive, with a respiration rate of 12 breaths per minute. The nurse will prepare for which immediate intervention?

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Pharmacology Cardiovascular Drugs Quiz Questions

Question 1 of 5

A patient has been admitted to the emergency department for an overdose of oral benzodiazepines. He is very drowsy but still responsive, with a respiration rate of 12 breaths per minute. The nurse will prepare for which immediate intervention?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Flumazenil (Romazicon), a benzodiazepine antidote, can be used to acutely reverse the sedative effects of benzodiazepines. Hemodialysis is not useful for benzodiazepine overdose, and naloxone is used for opioid overdose, not benzodiazepine overdose. Intubation and mechanical ventilation are not appropriate because the patient is still responsive and breathing on his own.

Question 2 of 5

Mannitol (Osmitrol) has been ordered for a patient with acute renal failure. The nurse will administer this drug using which procedure?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct procedure for administering Mannitol (Osmitrol) to a patient with acute renal failure is option A) intravenously, through a filter. Mannitol is a potent diuretic used to increase urine output and reduce intracranial pressure and intraocular pressure. Administering it intravenously ensures rapid onset of action and avoids potential issues with absorption if given orally. Option B) administering by rapid intravenous bolus is incorrect because Mannitol should be infused slowly to prevent complications like fluid overload and electrolyte imbalances. Rapid administration can lead to adverse effects such as heart failure and pulmonary edema. Option C) administering by mouth in a single morning dose is inappropriate because Mannitol is not absorbed effectively through oral administration, and its effects are needed quickly in acute situations like acute renal failure. Option D) administering through a gravity intravenous drip with standard tubing is also incorrect because Mannitol should be filtered during administration to prevent the infusion of particulate matter that could cause harm to the patient's vascular system. In an educational context, understanding the correct administration of pharmacological agents is crucial for patient safety and optimal outcomes. Nurses need to be aware of the appropriate routes, rates, and precautions associated with drug administration to prevent adverse reactions and ensure therapeutic effectiveness. Administering Mannitol intravenously through a filter is the recommended procedure based on pharmacological principles and best practices in patient care.

Question 3 of 5

A patient with end-stage renal failure has been admitted to the hospital for severe anemia. She is refusing blood transfusions. The nurse anticipates drug therapy with which drug to stimulate the production of red blood cells?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is C) epoetin alfa (Epogen). Epoetin alfa is a recombinant form of erythropoietin, a hormone produced by the kidneys that stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow. In end-stage renal failure, the kidneys are unable to produce enough erythropoietin, leading to anemia. By administering epoetin alfa, we can help stimulate the production of red blood cells and improve the patient's anemia without the need for a blood transfusion. Now, let's analyze why the other options are incorrect: A) Folic acid is essential for DNA synthesis and red blood cell production, but it does not directly stimulate red blood cell production in the same way as erythropoietin. B) Cyanocobalamin (vitamin B12) is important for red blood cell production and neurological function, particularly in cases of B12 deficiency anemia. However, it does not directly stimulate red blood cell production in the context of end-stage renal failure. D) Filgrastim (Neupogen) is a granulocyte colony-stimulating factor used to stimulate the production of white blood cells, not red blood cells. It is not indicated for treating anemia in end-stage renal failure. In an educational context, understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for healthcare professionals to make informed decisions in patient care. Knowing the specific indications and contraindications of medications allows for safe and effective treatment strategies to be implemented.

Question 4 of 5

If an agonist can produce submaximal effects and has moderate efficacy it’s called:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A) Partial agonist. In pharmacology, an agonist is a drug that binds to a receptor and activates it to produce a biological response. A partial agonist has moderate efficacy, meaning it can only produce submaximal effects even when all available receptors are occupied. This is in contrast to a full agonist (option D) which can produce maximal effects at full receptor occupancy. Now, let's discuss why the other options are incorrect: - B) Antagonist: An antagonist blocks the action of an agonist by binding to the receptor without activating it. It does not produce any effects on its own, unlike a partial agonist. - C) Agonist-antagonist: This term refers to a drug that has both agonistic and antagonistic properties, acting as an agonist at one type of receptor and as an antagonist at another. It is not the correct term for a drug with moderate efficacy. - D) Full agonist: As mentioned earlier, a full agonist can produce maximal effects at full receptor occupancy, which is different from a partial agonist. Understanding the concept of partial agonists is important in pharmacology as it influences how drugs interact with receptors and modulate biological responses. Knowing the differences between agonists, partial agonists, antagonists, and agonist-antagonists is crucial for prescribing medications and predicting their effects on the body.

Question 5 of 5

The primary mechanism of action of local anesthetics is:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In pharmacology, local anesthetics function by blocking voltage-gated sodium channels, which are responsible for the initiation and propagation of action potentials in neurons. This blockade prevents the influx of sodium ions, thus inhibiting the generation of nerve impulses and leading to a reversible loss of sensation in the targeted area. Option A, activation of ligand-gated potassium channels, is incorrect because local anesthetics do not directly affect potassium channels. Option C, stimulation of voltage-gated N-type calcium channels, is also incorrect as local anesthetics do not act on calcium channels. Option D, blockade of GABA-gated chloride channels, is unrelated to the mechanism of action of local anesthetics. Understanding the mechanism of action of local anesthetics is crucial for healthcare professionals, especially anesthetists and dentists, to ensure safe and effective administration of these drugs. Knowing that local anesthetics target sodium channels helps in predicting their effects, side effects, and potential drug interactions, ultimately leading to better patient care and outcomes.

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