A patient has been admitted to the emergency department with signs of anaphylaxis following a bee sting. The nurse knows that if this is a true allergic reaction the patient will present with what alteration in laboratory values?

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Question 1 of 9

A patient has been admitted to the emergency department with signs of anaphylaxis following a bee sting. The nurse knows that if this is a true allergic reaction the patient will present with what alteration in laboratory values?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased eosinophils. Eosinophils are a type of white blood cell involved in allergic reactions. During anaphylaxis, the body releases chemicals that stimulate the production and activation of eosinophils, leading to an increase in their count. This helps in the identification of an allergic reaction. Incorrect Choices: B: Increased neutrophils - Neutrophils are not specific to allergic reactions and are typically increased in bacterial infections. C: Increased serum albumin - Serum albumin levels are not directly affected by allergic reactions. D: Decreased blood glucose - Hypoglycemia is not a typical manifestation of an allergic reaction.

Question 2 of 9

A patient is using laxatives three times dailyto lose weight. After stopping laxative use, the patient has difficulty with constipation and wonders if laxatives should be taken again. Which information will the nurse share with the patient?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Long-term laxative use can lead to the bowel becoming less responsive to stimuli, resulting in constipation. This is due to the body becoming dependent on laxatives to stimulate bowel movements. Choice B is incorrect as laxatives typically do not cause trauma or scarring to the intestinal lining. Choice C is incorrect because while emollient laxatives can be helpful for constipation, long-term use is not recommended due to potential side effects. Choice D is incorrect because laxatives do not directly cause malnourishment or prevent waste production.

Question 3 of 9

A patient with suspected Parkinsons disease is initially being assessed by the nurse. When is the best time to assess for the presence of a tremor?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: When the patient is resting. This is because the tremor associated with Parkinson's disease is most noticeable when the patient is at rest due to the characteristic "resting tremor" seen in this condition. The tremor tends to lessen or disappear with purposeful movements or activities, making it more difficult to assess during ambulation, meal preparation, or occupational therapy. By observing the patient at rest, the nurse can accurately assess the presence and severity of the tremor, which is a key diagnostic feature of Parkinson's disease. Other answer choices are incorrect because they do not provide the optimal condition for assessing the tremor associated with Parkinson's disease.

Question 4 of 9

A public health nurse has formed an interdisciplinary team that is developing an educational program entitled Cancer: The Risks and What You Can Do About Them. Participants will receive information, but the major focus will be screening for relevant cancers. This program is an example of what type of health promotion activity?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Secondary prevention. This program focuses on screening for relevant cancers, which is a key component of secondary prevention aimed at early detection and treatment to reduce the impact of the disease. Secondary prevention aims to identify and treat health conditions in their early stages. Disease prophylaxis (A) focuses on preventing the occurrence of a disease, while risk reduction (B) aims to lower the chances of developing a disease. Tertiary prevention (D) involves managing and improving outcomes for individuals already diagnosed with a disease. In this scenario, the emphasis on screening aligns closely with the goals of secondary prevention, making it the most appropriate choice.

Question 5 of 9

A patient who came to the clinic after finding a mass in her breast is scheduled for a diagnostic breast biopsy. During the nurses admission assessment, the nurse observes that the patient is distracted and tense. What is it important for the nurse to do?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because acknowledging the patient's fear validates their emotions, builds trust, and shows empathy. This can help the patient feel understood and supported during a vulnerable time. Choice B is incorrect because discussing support groups may not address the patient's immediate emotional needs. Choice C is incorrect because assessing stress management skills may not be the priority at this moment when the patient is visibly tense. Choice D is incorrect because documenting a nursing diagnosis should come after addressing the patient's immediate emotional state.

Question 6 of 9

A patients most recent diagnostic imaging has revealed that his lung cancer has metastasized to his bones and liver. What is the most likely mechanism by which the patients cancer cells spread?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hematologic spread. In this case, the cancer cells have traveled through the bloodstream to reach the bones and liver. This process is known as hematologic spread, where cancer cells enter the blood vessels and spread to distant organs. Lymphatic circulation (B) involves the spread of cancer cells through the lymphatic system, which is less likely in this scenario. Invasion (C) refers to cancer cells infiltrating nearby tissues, not distant organs. Angiogenesis (D) is the process of new blood vessel formation to support tumor growth, but it does not explain the spread of cancer cells to other organs.

Question 7 of 9

An abortion when the fetus dies but is retained in the uterus is called

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: missed. In a missed abortion, the fetus dies but is not immediately expelled from the uterus. This term specifically describes the situation where the fetus is retained in the uterus. Choice A (inevitable) refers to a situation where abortion is certain to occur, choice C (incomplete) refers to partial expulsion of the fetus, and choice D (threatened) refers to a situation where the woman has vaginal bleeding, but the fetus is still viable. Therefore, the term "missed" accurately describes the scenario where the fetus dies but remains in the uterus.

Question 8 of 9

In which situation would a dilation and curettage (D&C) be indicated?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because an incomplete abortion at 16 weeks may require a D&C to remove remaining tissue to prevent infection and complications. Incomplete abortion means not all fetal tissue has been expelled, posing a risk. Choice A (complete abortion at 8 weeks) does not require a D&C as all tissue is expelled. Choice C (threatened abortion at 6 weeks) does not necessitate immediate intervention. Choice D (incomplete abortion at 10 weeks) is not the best choice as the risk of complications increases with gestational age.

Question 9 of 9

A nurse is teaching a nutrition class about the different daily values. When teaching about the referenced daily intakes (RDIs), which information should the nurse include?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because referenced daily intakes (RDIs) provide values for protein, vitamins, and minerals essential for maintaining health. RDIs do not focus solely on fat, cholesterol, and fiber percentages (B). RDIs are different from recommended daily allowances (RDAs) but do not replace them (C). RDIs are not specifically used to develop diets for chronic illnesses requiring a specific calorie intake (D).

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