ATI RN
foundations of nursing practice questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient has been admitted to the emergency department with signs of anaphylaxis following a bee sting. The nurse knows that if this is a true allergic reaction the patient will present with what alteration in laboratory values?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased eosinophils. Eosinophils are a type of white blood cell involved in allergic reactions. During anaphylaxis, the body releases chemicals that stimulate the production and activation of eosinophils, leading to an increase in their count. This helps in the identification of an allergic reaction. Incorrect Choices: B: Increased neutrophils - Neutrophils are not specific to allergic reactions and are typically increased in bacterial infections. C: Increased serum albumin - Serum albumin levels are not directly affected by allergic reactions. D: Decreased blood glucose - Hypoglycemia is not a typical manifestation of an allergic reaction.
Question 2 of 9
The patient is admitted with facial trauma, including a broken nose, and has a history of esophageal reflux and of aspiration pneumonia. With which tube will the nursemostlikely administer the feeding?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Jejunostomy tube. This tube is chosen because the patient has a history of aspiration pneumonia, which puts them at risk for aspiration if feeds are administered into the stomach. By administering feeds through a jejunostomy tube, the risk of aspiration pneumonia is minimized as the feed bypasses the stomach. Nasogastric tube (A) and Nasointestinal tube (C) would still deliver feeds to the stomach, increasing the risk of aspiration. PEG tube (D) is also not ideal as it delivers feeds directly to the stomach, which is not recommended for patients at risk for aspiration.
Question 3 of 9
While reviewing the health history of an older adult experiencing hearing loss the nurse notes the patient has had no trauma or loss of balance. What aspect of this patients health history is most likely to be linked to the patients hearing deficit?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Previous perforation of the eardrum. A perforated eardrum can lead to hearing loss as it affects the transmission of sound waves to the inner ear. This is the most likely link to the patient's hearing deficit as trauma or injury to the eardrum can directly impact hearing. Incorrect choices: A: Recent completion of radiation therapy for treatment of thyroid cancer - Radiation therapy for thyroid cancer typically does not directly affect hearing. B: Routine use of quinine for management of leg cramps - Quinine use is associated with tinnitus (ringing in the ears) but not typically with hearing loss. C: Allergy to hair coloring and hair spray - Allergy to hair products is not directly related to hearing loss. In summary, the most likely cause of the patient's hearing deficit based on the health history provided is the previous perforation of the eardrum, as it directly affects the transmission of sound waves to the inner ear.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is using SOLER to facilitate active listening.Which technique should the nurse use for R?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Relax. In the SOLER technique for active listening, "R" stands for Relax. This technique involves the nurse maintaining a relaxed and open body posture to show attentiveness and create a comfortable environment for the speaker. This helps to build trust and encourages the speaker to express themselves freely. Choice B: Respect is incorrect as it refers to showing respect towards the speaker, which is important in communication but not specifically related to the relaxation aspect of active listening. Choice C: Reminisce is incorrect as it means to recall past experiences or memories, which is not part of the SOLER technique for active listening. Choice D: Reassure is incorrect as it involves providing comfort or support to the speaker, which is different from the relaxation required for active listening.
Question 5 of 9
An 18-year-old pregnant female has tested positive for HIV and asks the nurse if her baby is going to be born with HIV. What is the nurses best response?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it provides an accurate and comprehensive response to the pregnant patient's question about the risk of her baby being born with HIV. Here's the step-by-step rationale: 1. Option D acknowledges the possibility of the baby contracting HIV at different stages: before, during, or after delivery. This covers all potential scenarios and educates the patient about the risks. 2. By mentioning the different possible transmission times, the nurse highlights the importance of proper prenatal care, delivery planning, and postnatal care to minimize the risk of HIV transmission to the baby. 3. This response empowers the patient with knowledge about the potential risks and emphasizes the importance of seeking appropriate medical interventions to prevent mother-to-child transmission of HIV. 4. In contrast, options A, B, and C provide less informative or inaccurate responses that do not address the patient's concerns adequately, making them incorrect choices. In summary, option D is the best response as it educates the patient about the risks of HIV transmission
Question 6 of 9
A clinic nurse is caring for a patient admitted with AIDS. The nurse has assessed that the patient is experiencing a progressive decline in cognitive, behavioral, and motor functions. The nurse recognizes that these symptoms are most likely related to the onset of what complication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: HIV encephalopathy. This condition, also known as AIDS dementia complex, is characterized by progressive decline in cognitive, behavioral, and motor functions due to HIV affecting the brain. The onset of these symptoms in the patient is indicative of HIV encephalopathy. Explanation for why other choices are incorrect: B: B-cell lymphoma is a type of cancer that can occur in patients with AIDS, but it typically presents with symptoms related to lymph nodes or other organs, not cognitive decline. C: Kaposis sarcoma is a type of cancer caused by the human herpesvirus 8, and it typically presents with skin lesions or internal organ involvement, not cognitive decline. D: Wasting syndrome is characterized by severe weight loss, weakness, and loss of muscle mass, but it does not directly cause cognitive, behavioral, and motor decline as seen in HIV encephalopathy.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse believes that the nurse-patient relationshipis a partnership and that both are equal participants. Which term should the nurse use to describe this belief?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct term to describe the belief that the nurse-patient relationship is a partnership where both are equal participants is "Mutuality" (C). This term emphasizes the idea of shared responsibility, respect, and collaboration between the nurse and the patient. It signifies a relationship built on equality and mutual understanding, fostering trust and positive outcomes. Choice A (Critical thinking) involves analyzing and evaluating information, which is essential for decision-making but does not directly reflect the equality and partnership aspect of the nurse-patient relationship. Choice B (Authentic) relates to being genuine and true to oneself, which is important in building trust but does not specifically address the equal participation aspect in the relationship. Choice D (Attend) means to be present or pay attention, which is a fundamental aspect of nursing care but does not capture the full essence of a partnership based on equality and mutual involvement.
Question 8 of 9
A man tells the nurse that his father died of prostate cancer and he is concerned about his own risk of developing the disease, having heard that prostate cancer has a genetic link. What aspect of the pathophysiology of prostate cancer would underlie the nurses response?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because several studies have indeed shown an association between BRCA-2 mutation and an increased risk of prostate cancer. BRCA-2 mutation is known to be linked to an increased risk of various cancers, including prostate cancer. This genetic mutation can be inherited and passed down through generations, leading to a higher likelihood of developing prostate cancer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because: B: HNPCC (Hereditary Nonpolyposis Colorectal Cancer) is not specifically associated with prostate cancer, and it is not an autosomal dominant mutation causing prostate cancer in men. C: TP53 gene is associated with other types of cancers, such as breast cancer, but not strongly linked to prostate cancer. D: Research has shown that genetics do play a role in the development of prostate cancer, contradicting the statement that genetics are unrelated to the disease.
Question 9 of 9
On otoscopy, a red blemish behind the tympanic membrane is suggestive of what diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cholesteatoma. A red blemish behind the tympanic membrane is indicative of a cholesteatoma, which is a noncancerous cyst in the middle ear. This occurs due to the accumulation of skin cells and debris in the middle ear space. Other choices (A, C, D) are not associated with a red blemish on otoscopy. An acoustic tumor (A) typically presents as a slow-growing mass on the vestibulocochlear nerve. Facial nerve neuroma (C) involves the facial nerve and does not typically cause a red blemish. Glomus tympanicum (D) is a vascular tumor arising from the middle ear but does not usually present as a red blemish.