ATI RN
health assessment practice questions nursing Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient has been admitted for severe iron-deficiency anemia. What can the nurse expect to find in the patient's fingernails?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Spoon nails. In iron-deficiency anemia, the nails may develop a concave or spoon-like shape (koilonychia). This is due to the decreased oxygen supply to the nail bed. The characteristic spoon nails are indicative of severe iron deficiency. Splinter hemorrhages (choice A) are small areas of bleeding under the nails and are more commonly associated with conditions like endocarditis. Paronychia (choice B) is an infection around the nail, not specific to anemia. Beau's lines (choice D) are horizontal depressions in the nails, typically seen after a period of severe illness or stress, rather than specifically in iron-deficiency anemia.
Question 2 of 9
When examining the ear with an otoscope, the nurse would expect to find that the tympanic membrane is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: pearly grey and slightly concave. This is because a healthy tympanic membrane should appear pearly grey in color and slightly concave in shape. The pearly grey color indicates normal transparency and reflection of light, while the slightly concave shape is indicative of a normal eardrum. Choice A is incorrect as a light pink color and slight bulge are not characteristic of a healthy tympanic membrane. Choice C is incorrect because a pulled-in appearance at the base of the cone of light suggests retraction, which is abnormal. Choice D is incorrect as a whitish color with a small fleck of light is not a typical presentation of a healthy tympanic membrane.
Question 3 of 9
When a light is directed across the iris of the eye from the temporal side, the examiner is assessing for:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: the presence of shadows, which may indicate glaucoma. When a light is directed across the iris from the temporal side, it helps in evaluating the presence of shadows in the anterior chamber angle, which can suggest a narrow or closed angle glaucoma. This technique is known as transillumination test and is important in detecting potential glaucoma cases. A: Drainage from dacryocystitis is incorrect as it is typically assessed by pressing on the lacrimal sac area to observe for discharge. B: Conjunctivitis over the iris is incorrect as conjunctivitis is an inflammation of the conjunctiva, not the iris. D: A scattered light reflex indicative of cataracts is incorrect as cataracts cause clouding of the lens, not scattering of light across the iris.
Question 4 of 9
A physician has diagnosed a patient with purpura. After leaving the room, a nursing student asks the nurse what the physician saw that led to that diagnosis. The nurse should say:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because purpura is characterized by the presence of confluent and extensive patches of petechiae and ecchymoses. Petechiae are small, pinpoint hemorrhages less than 2mm in size, and ecchymoses are larger bruises. This presentation is indicative of a more severe underlying condition, such as a bleeding disorder or vasculitis. Choice A is incorrect as it describes spider veins or telangiectasias, not purpura. Choice B describes a birthmark, not purpura. Choice D is incorrect as it describes petechiae, not purpura, which involves larger areas of bleeding.
Question 5 of 9
A mother brings her newborn in for an assessment and asks,"Is there something wrong with my baby? His head seems so big." Which of the following does the nurse know about the relative proportions of the head and trunk in the newborn?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: At birth, the head is one fifth the total length. This is because newborns have relatively larger heads compared to their body size. This is known as cephalocaudal growth, where development starts from the head and progresses down the body. The head being one-fifth of the total length is a normal proportion in newborns. Choice B is incorrect because at birth, the chest circumference is usually greater than the head circumference. Choice C is incorrect as the head size reaches about 80% of its final size by age 2, not 3 years old. Choice D is incorrect because the closure of the anterior fontanelle at 2 months does not necessarily mean the head will appear proportionate to the body; it continues to grow in proportion to the body size.
Question 6 of 9
A patient is unable to read the 20/100 line on the Snellen chart. The nurse would:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Referring the patient to an ophthalmologist or optometrist is the appropriate action because the patient's inability to read the 20/100 line on the Snellen chart suggests significant visual impairment that requires professional evaluation. Options B and C are incorrect as they do not address the underlying cause of the vision issue. Option B focuses on a different method of assessment and does not provide a solution for the patient's visual acuity problem. Option C assumes the patient's vision issue can be corrected by reading glasses, which may not be the case for a 20/100 visual acuity. Option D is also incorrect as it only adjusts the testing distance and does not address the need for a comprehensive evaluation by an eye care specialist.
Question 7 of 9
A 45-year-old farmer comes in for skin evaluation and complains of hair loss. He has noticed that the hair on his head seems to be breaking off in patches and that there is some scaling on his scalp. The nurse would begin the examination suspecting:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: tinea capitis. Tinea capitis is a fungal infection of the scalp that can cause hair loss, scaling, and breakage of hair. In this case, the patient's symptoms of hair loss, patchy hair breakage, and scaling on the scalp are consistent with tinea capitis. The nurse should suspect tinea capitis based on the presentation of these specific symptoms in the patient. Summary: - B: tinea corporis is a fungal infection of the skin, not the scalp, so it is not the most likely cause of the patient's symptoms. - C: toxic alopecia refers to hair loss due to exposure to toxins, which is unlikely in this case based on the symptoms described. - D: seborrheic dermatitis is a common skin condition that causes redness, scaly patches, and dandruff on the scalp, but it does not typically cause hair loss in the same way as tinea capitis
Question 8 of 9
A 68-year-old woman is in the eye clinic for a checkup. She tells the nurse that she has been having trouble reading the paper, sewing, and even seeing the faces of her grandchildren. On examination, the nurse notes that she has some loss of central vision but her peripheral vision is normal. These findings suggest that:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: she may have macular degeneration. Macular degeneration is characterized by loss of central vision while peripheral vision remains intact. In this case, the woman's difficulty with tasks that require central vision, such as reading and recognizing faces, points towards macular degeneration. The other choices are incorrect because: B: Her symptoms indicate a specific vision problem, not just age-related changes. C: Cataracts typically cause blurred vision, not loss of central vision. D: Glaucoma typically affects peripheral vision first before progressing to central vision loss.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is teaching a health class to high school boys. One of the topics is the use of smokeless tobacco (SLT). Which of the following statements about SLT are accurate? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because one pinch of smokeless tobacco (SLT) in the mouth for 30 minutes can indeed deliver a similar amount of nicotine as smoking one cigarette. This is because the nicotine in SLT is absorbed through the oral mucosa directly into the bloodstream, providing a quick effect. This statement is accurate and reflects the pharmacokinetics of SLT use. Option B is incorrect because smoking carries a higher risk of oral cancer compared to SLT use. Option C is incorrect as pain is not always an early sign of oral cancer, and other symptoms such as non-healing sores or lumps may indicate oral cancer. Option D is incorrect as pain can sometimes be an early sign of oral cancer, especially in advanced stages.