ATI RN
Drugs Affecting the Female Reproductive System NCLEX Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient has an epidural for pain control during labor. During the
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because ensuring the safety and well-being of the patient is the top priority in nursing care. By monitoring the patient's response to the epidural and assessing for any complications, the nurse can provide timely interventions if needed. Administering low-flow oxygen (B) may not be necessary unless there is a specific indication. Turning the patient on her left side (C) is important for labor progress but not the priority in this scenario. Option D is incomplete.
Question 2 of 5
A newborn is admitted to the nursery, and the nurse reviews the maternal history. It is important that the nurse assess the mother's status specific to which infectious process(es)? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hepatitis B. This is important because Hepatitis B is a bloodborne virus that can be transmitted from mother to newborn during childbirth, leading to serious health complications. The other choices, A (Rubeola) and B (Hepatitis A), are not typically transmitted from mother to newborn during childbirth. Choice D (HIV/AIDS) can also be transmitted from mother to newborn during childbirth, but assessing for Hepatitis B is especially crucial due to the high risk of transmission and potential long-term consequences for the newborn.
Question 3 of 5
A 24-year-old patient tells the nurse that she would like to use the progestin-only pill for contraception. Nursing evaluation of this patient as a candidate for the progestin-only pill includes what?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because assessing patient reliability in taking an oral pill daily is crucial for the effectiveness of progestin-only pills. This type of contraceptive requires strict adherence to daily dosing. Option A is incorrect because prior childbirth does not impact eligibility for progestin-only pills. Option B is incorrect as regular periods are not a requirement for this contraceptive method. Option D is irrelevant as smoking history is not a determining factor for using progestin-only pills.
Question 4 of 5
A 48-year-old patient arrives at the clinic to discuss her perimenopausal symptoms. She states that her last menstrual period was 8 months ago, and before that, her periods had been irregular. What is the most important nursing advice to give this patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: The patient should be using some form of contraception to avoid pregnancy. Rationale: 1. Perimenopause does not guarantee the cessation of ovulation, so pregnancy is still possible. 2. Irregular periods increase the difficulty of predicting ovulation. 3. Pregnancy at an older age carries increased risks for both the mother and the baby. 4. Contraception is essential until menopause is confirmed. Incorrect Choices: A: Hormone therapy addresses menopausal symptoms, not contraception. C: Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry scan is for bone density, not pregnancy prevention. D: Incomplete option, not relevant to the scenario.
Question 5 of 5
A patient is given corticotropin. The nurse knows to monitor the patient for which condition?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypoglycemia. Corticotropin is a hormone that stimulates the production of cortisol, which can lead to increased glucose utilization and lower blood sugar levels. Therefore, monitoring for hypoglycemia is crucial. Weight gain (A) is not typically associated with corticotropin. Hyperkalemia (B) is more commonly seen with medications like ACE inhibitors. Dehydration (D) is not a common side effect of corticotropin.