ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Exam 2 Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient has a heart attack that leads to progressive cell injury resulting in cell death with severe cell swelling and breakdown of organelles. What term would the nurse use to define this process?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Necrosis. Necrosis is the process of cell death characterized by cell swelling, breakdown of organelles, and eventual rupture, often following ischemic injury like a heart attack. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Adaptation refers to the ability of cells to adjust to changes in their environment. Pathologic calcification is the abnormal deposition of calcium salts in tissues. Apoptosis is a programmed cell death that occurs in a controlled, orderly manner.
Question 2 of 5
In a patient with HIV infected with Mycobacterium avium complex from an indoor pool, which of the following medications is the recommended treatment for MAC?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Clarithromycin. Clarithromycin is one of the recommended medications for treating Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) infections in patients with HIV. It is a macrolide antibiotic that is effective against MAC. Isoniazid (INH) is used to treat tuberculosis, not MAC. Rifabutin is another medication used in the treatment of MAC infections, but clarithromycin is preferred as a first-line agent. Azithromycin is also used in the treatment of MAC infections; however, clarithromycin is more commonly recommended due to its efficacy and safety profile.
Question 3 of 5
Seizures are diagnosed by which of the following?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Seizures are most accurately diagnosed by EEG, which measures brain activity. Choice A is incorrect as ECG (electrocardiogram) measures heart activity, not brain activity. Choice B is incorrect as CBC (complete blood count) is a blood test and not used to diagnose seizures. Choice C is incorrect as an ECG (electrocardiogram) also measures heart activity, not brain activity, and is not the primary diagnostic tool for seizures.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following describes the damage to the brain that results in cerebral palsy?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Cerebral palsy involves irreversible damage to the brain that occurs before, during, or shortly after birth, impacting movement and coordination. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because cerebral palsy is not reversible with cognitive therapy or physical therapy, does not resolve in adulthood, and does not manifest in adulthood after regular childhood activities.
Question 5 of 5
A patient has been diagnosed with chronic renal failure. Which of the following agents will assist in raising the patient's hemoglobin levels?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Epoetin alfa (Epogen, Procrit). Epoetin alfa is a synthetic form of erythropoietin that stimulates red blood cell production and is commonly used to treat anemia in patients with chronic renal failure. By increasing red blood cell production, epoetin alfa helps raise hemoglobin levels in these patients. Pentoxifylline (Choice B) is not indicated for raising hemoglobin levels in chronic renal failure patients; it is a peripheral vasodilator used to improve blood flow. Estazolam (Choice C) is a benzodiazepine used for treating insomnia and has no role in raising hemoglobin levels. Dextromethorphan hydrobromide (Choice D) is a cough suppressant and is not used to raise hemoglobin levels in patients with chronic renal failure.
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