A patient had been provisionally diagnosed with syphilis. A laboratory assistant took the blood serum for an immunologic test based on the detection of antibodies preventing the movement of treponemas and causing their death. What reaction was used for the diagnosis?

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Question 1 of 9

A patient had been provisionally diagnosed with syphilis. A laboratory assistant took the blood serum for an immunologic test based on the detection of antibodies preventing the movement of treponemas and causing their death. What reaction was used for the diagnosis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Immobilization. This technique is called the Treponema pallidum immobilization (TPI) test, used to diagnose syphilis. The rationale is as follows: 1. TPI test detects antibodies that prevent the movement of treponemas, causing their death. 2. By immobilizing the treponemas, it indicates the presence of specific antibodies against syphilis. 3. This test is highly specific for syphilis diagnosis as it directly targets the causative agent. Other choices are incorrect: B: Complement binding - Not specific to syphilis, more commonly used for other diseases. C: Agglutination - Detects clumping of particles, not specific to treponemas or syphilis. D: Precipitation - Involves the formation of a solid, not directly related to treponema movement or death.

Question 2 of 9

A 40-year-old man developed skin redness and an swelling in the neck area, where eventually a small abscess appeared. The section the focus is dense and yellow-green colored. In the purulent masses there are white granules. Histologically there are fungal druses, plasma and xanthome cells, and macrophages detected. Specify the most correct etiological name of this pathological process?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Actinomycosis. This is a chronic bacterial infection caused by Actinomyces species. In this case, the description of dense yellow-green colored focus, white granules in purulent masses, and presence of fungal druses, plasma cells, xanthome cells, and macrophages all match the characteristics of actinomycosis. Actinomycosis typically presents with abscess formation containing sulfur granules, which are yellowish and granular. The other choices (B: Furuncle, C: Carbuncle, D: Syphilis) do not fit the clinical and histological features described in the question, making them incorrect options.

Question 3 of 9

Bacteria that require low oxygen concentrations for growth are called:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Microaerophiles. These bacteria grow best in environments with low oxygen levels. They require oxygen for respiration but at lower concentrations than what is present in the atmosphere. This allows them to thrive in conditions where oxygen is limited but not completely absent. A: Facultative anaerobes can grow in both the presence and absence of oxygen. B: Obligate aerobes require oxygen for growth. D: Obligate anaerobes cannot survive in the presence of oxygen and typically grow in anaerobic environments. In summary, microaerophiles are the correct choice as they specifically thrive in low oxygen environments, distinguishing them from the other options.

Question 4 of 9

What type of immunity is responsible for the agglutination of viruses:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Humoral immunity. Humoral immunity involves the production of antibodies by B cells that can bind to antigens on viruses, leading to their agglutination. This process prevents the spread of the virus in the body. Passive immunity (A) involves receiving pre-formed antibodies, not the production of antibodies. Cell-mediated immunity (C) involves the activation of T cells, not the direct agglutination of viruses. Non-specific immunity (D) refers to general defense mechanisms like inflammation and fever, not targeted agglutination of viruses.

Question 5 of 9

A patient consulted a stomatologist about purulent inflammation of his gums. What drug will be the most effective if it is suspected that a causative agent is an anaerobe?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Metronidazole. Anaerobic bacteria are sensitive to metronidazole due to its mechanism of action targeting their DNA. Metronidazole is often the drug of choice for treating infections caused by anaerobic bacteria. Gentamicin, Oxacillin, and Co-trimoxazole are not effective against anaerobes. Gentamicin is an aminoglycoside mostly used for aerobic bacteria, Oxacillin is a beta-lactam antibiotic effective against gram-positive bacteria, and Co-trimoxazole is a combination of sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim mainly used for urinary tract infections and some respiratory infections.

Question 6 of 9

Which of the following bacteria can be transmitted via droplets in the air?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Mycobacterium tuberculosis. This bacterium can be transmitted via droplets in the air through coughing or sneezing. It is spread through respiratory droplets containing the bacteria. Streptococcus pneumoniae (A) is transmitted through direct contact with respiratory secretions, not through droplets in the air. Escherichia coli (B) is commonly transmitted through contaminated food or water, not through the air. Clostridium botulinum (C) is typically transmitted through contaminated food, not via respiratory droplets. Therefore, the correct choice is D as it is the only bacterium listed that can be transmitted via droplets in the air.

Question 7 of 9

Which of the following media is the most selective for Vibrio cholerae?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: TCBS. Thiosulfate-citrate-bile salts-sucrose (TCBS) agar is the most selective for Vibrio cholerae due to its high salt content, bile salts, and sucrose. Vibrio cholerae can grow well in alkaline conditions, which are provided by TCBS agar. MacConkey's agar (A) is selective for gram-negative bacteria, but not specifically for Vibrio cholerae. Chocolate agar (B) is a non-selective medium suitable for fastidious organisms. SS agar (C) is selective for Salmonella and Shigella species, not Vibrio cholerae.

Question 8 of 9

The presence of E. Coli, Klebsiella pneumoniae and Pseudomonas aeruginosa in the pharynx is

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: colonization. E. Coli, Klebsiella pneumoniae, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa in the pharynx indicate colonization rather than being part of the normal resident flora. Colonization refers to the presence of these bacteria on body surfaces without causing harm. They are not considered normal flora in the pharynx but rather transient or opportunistic pathogens. Choice A is incorrect because these bacteria are not part of the normal resident flora of the pharynx. Choice C is incorrect as it implies that these bacteria are both normal flora and colonization, which is not accurate. Choice D is incorrect as there is evidence of bacterial presence, indicating colonization.

Question 9 of 9

Patients after transplantation of allogeneic stem cells are monitored periodically for reactivation of

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: CMV. Patients after allogeneic stem cell transplantation are monitored for CMV reactivation due to its potential to cause severe complications in immunocompromised individuals. CMV can lead to organ damage and even mortality in these patients. Monitoring for CMV reactivation allows for early detection and prompt intervention. Incorrect Choices: A: HAV - Hepatitis A virus reactivation is not commonly monitored in post-transplant patients. C: Rubella virus - Rubella is not a common concern for reactivation in this patient population. D: Measles virus - Measles reactivation is not typically monitored in these patients.

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