A patient expresses frustration with the treatment plan proposed by the healthcare team. What is the most appropriate response from the nurse?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate response from the nurse when a patient expresses frustration with the treatment plan proposed by the healthcare team is to empathize with the patient's frustration and explore their concerns further. It is important to actively listen to the patient, acknowledge their feelings, and address any questions or uncertainties they may have about the treatment plan. By engaging in open communication and demonstrating empathy, the nurse can foster a therapeutic relationship with the patient and work towards finding a solution that is mutually agreeable and beneficial for the patient's well-being. Dismissing the patient's concerns (Option A) or ignoring their frustration (Option C) can lead to a breakdown in communication and trust, which may ultimately impact the patient's compliance with the treatment plan. Similarly, telling the patient that they have no choice but to follow the treatment plan (Option D) can be perceived as dismissive and confrontational, which is not conducive to promoting patient-centered care.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The patient in this scenario presents with normocytic normochromic anemia, normal iron studies, and elevated serum erythropoietin levels. These findings are characteristic of anemia of chronic disease, which is commonly seen in patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD). In CKD, there is a decrease in renal production of erythropoietin, leading to reduced stimulation of erythropoiesis and subsequent anemia. The normocytic normochromic anemia pattern is typical in anemia of chronic disease, as opposed to microcytic hypochromic anemia seen in iron deficiency anemia and thalassemia. Aplastic anemia is characterized by pancytopenia, which is not described in the scenario. Therefore, the most likely cause of the patient's presentation is chronic kidney disease.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate nursing action in this situation is to notify the healthcare provider immediately. The symptoms the postpartum client is experiencing - persistent, severe abdominal pain, distention, and absent bowel sounds - are concerning and could indicate a serious underlying issue such as bowel obstruction or other complications. Prompt communication with the healthcare provider is crucial to ensure the client receives the necessary assessment, intervention, and treatment. Encouraging ambulation, providing a heating pad, or administering a laxative are not appropriate actions in this case without first consulting with the healthcare provider due to the severity and potential complexity of the client's symptoms.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) can lead to urinary retention, which is a common complication associated with this condition. As the prostate gland enlarges, it can obstruct the flow of urine from the bladder through the urethra. This obstruction can result in difficulty starting to urinate, weak urine flow, frequent urination, incomplete bladder emptying, and eventually urinary retention. If left untreated, urinary retention can lead to serious complications such as urinary tract infections, bladder damage, kidney damage, and even kidney stones. Therefore, urinary retention is an important complication to be aware of in patients with BPH.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The clinical findings of inspiratory crackles (also known as rales) and dullness to percussion are most consistent with a diagnosis of pneumonia. Inspiratory crackles are abnormal lung sounds heard on auscultation and are typically due to the presence of fluid or mucus in the alveoli. Dullness to percussion can indicate consolidation of lung tissue, which is a common finding in pneumonia where the alveolar spaces are filled with inflammatory exudate. These findings suggest localized lung pathology and are commonly observed in patients with pneumonia. Hemoptysis and pleuritic chest pain (Choice B) are more suggestive of pulmonary embolism or pleurisy. Clubbing of the fingers and cyanosis (Choice C) are signs of chronic hypoxemia and are not specific to pneumonia. Decreased breath sounds and tracheal deviation (Choice D) are more indicative of conditions such as a pneumoth

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The recommended screening test for cervical cancer prevention in women aged 21 to 65 years is cytology, also known as a Pap smear. The Pap smear is a test that looks for changes in the cells of the cervix that could indicate the presence of cervical cancer or pre-cancerous conditions. This test is recommended every 3 years for women aged 21-29 years, and every 3-5 years for women aged 30-65 years, depending on the screening method used. HPV testing alone or co-testing with both cytology and HPV testing may be used in certain situations, but for most women in this age group, cytology (Pap smear) alone is the recommended screening test.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The healthcare team should prioritize implementing environmental modifications to promote orientation in a patient with delirium. Delirium is a state of acute confusion and agitation that can be triggered by various factors such as medications, infections, or metabolic disturbances. Environmental modifications involve creating a calm, quiet, and well-lit environment for the patient. Promoting proper orientation through the use of clocks, calendars, and familiar objects can help reduce confusion and improve the patient's understanding of their surroundings. These interventions are non-pharmacological and aim to address the underlying causes of delirium while minimizing the need for additional medications that may have potential side effects. Antipsychotic medications and benzodiazepines should be used judiciously and under close supervision due to the risk of adverse effects in older adults and critically ill patients. Referring the patient to a psychiatrist may be considered if the delirium is complex or if there are underlying psychiatric issues contributing to the presentation.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The given clinical presentation of chest pain that worsens with swallowing and is relieved by leaning forward along with diffuse ST-segment elevation on an ECG is highly suggestive of pericarditis. Pericarditis is the inflammation of the pericardium, the thin sac surrounding the heart. The symptoms of pericarditis can mimic those of myocardial infarction (heart attack) but can also be differentiated by certain characteristics such as the described positional chest pain, which is worsened by swallowing and relieved by leaning forward.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Warming up ofloxacin eardrops before administering is done to prevent dizziness, which can occur if a cold solution is placed in the ear. Holding the bottle with hands for about 1 to 2 minutes is usually sufficient to warm up the solution to a comfortable temperature for the patient. Warming the solution for too long, such as 5-6 minutes, may not be necessary and could potentially waste time. So, the correct duration for warming up ofloxacin eardrops is 1 to 2 minutes.