ATI RN
Fundamentals Nursing Process Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient expresses fear of going home and being alone. Vital signs are stable and the incision is nearly completely healed. What can the nurse infer from the subjective data?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: The patient is apprehensive about discharge. The rationale is that the patient's fear of going home and being alone indicates anxiety about leaving the hospital setting. This subjective data suggests that the patient may not feel ready for discharge despite stable vital signs and nearly healed incision. Choices A and B are incorrect because they assume the patient's readiness for self-care without considering emotional factors. Choice D is incorrect as there is no evidence provided that the surgery was unsuccessful.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is caring for a client with diabetes insipidus. The nurse should anticipate the administration of:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: vasopressin (Pitressin). In diabetes insipidus, there is a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which leads to excessive urination and thirst. Vasopressin is a synthetic form of ADH that helps regulate water balance by reducing urine output. Therefore, administering vasopressin would help manage the symptoms of diabetes insipidus. Insulin (A) is used for diabetes mellitus, not diabetes insipidus. Potassium chloride (B) is used to correct potassium imbalances, not specific to diabetes insipidus. Furosemide (Lasix) (C) is a diuretic that increases urine output, which would worsen the symptoms of diabetes insipidus.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is reviewing a patient’s plan of care, which includes the nursing diagnostic statement, Impaired physical mobility related to tibial fracture as evidenced by patient’s inability to ambulate. Which part of the diagnostic statement does the nurse need to revise?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Collaborative problem. The nurse needs to revise this part of the diagnostic statement because impaired physical mobility related to tibial fracture is a nursing diagnosis, not a collaborative problem. Collaborative problems are issues that require both medical and nursing interventions, whereas nursing diagnoses are within the scope of nursing practice. The etiology identifies the cause of the problem (tibial fracture), the nursing diagnosis states the problem (impaired physical mobility), and the defining characteristic is the evidence that supports the diagnosis (inability to ambulate). Therefore, the nurse should revise the part stating collaborative problem as it does not align with the nature of the issue presented in the scenario.
Question 4 of 9
A patient expresses fear of going home and being alone. Vital signs are stable and the incision is nearly completely healed. What can the nurse infer from the subjective data?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: The patient is apprehensive about discharge. The rationale is that the patient's fear of going home and being alone indicates anxiety about leaving the hospital setting. This subjective data suggests that the patient may not feel ready for discharge despite stable vital signs and nearly healed incision. Choices A and B are incorrect because they assume the patient's readiness for self-care without considering emotional factors. Choice D is incorrect as there is no evidence provided that the surgery was unsuccessful.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is providing breast cancer education at a community facility. The American Cancer Society recommends that women get with mammograms:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice A is correct: 1. The American Cancer Society recommends yearly mammograms after age 40 for early breast cancer detection. 2. Mammograms are most effective for women aged 40 and older in detecting breast cancer. 3. Regular mammograms can help detect breast cancer at an early stage, improving treatment outcomes. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B: Mammograms should start at age 40, not after the birth of the first child. C: Mammograms are not recommended after the first menstrual period; they should start at age 40. D: Mammograms should be done annually after age 40, not every 3 years between ages 20 and 40.
Question 6 of 9
A surgical intervention that can cause substantial remission of myasthenia gravis is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Thymectomy. Thymectomy involves the surgical removal of the thymus gland, which is often abnormal in individuals with myasthenia gravis. The thymus plays a role in the development of the immune system and can contribute to the autoimmune response seen in myasthenia gravis. By removing the thymus gland, the autoimmune response may be reduced, leading to substantial remission of symptoms. Choice A, Esophagostomy, involves creating a surgical opening into the esophagus and is not a treatment for myasthenia gravis. Choice C, Myomectomy, is the surgical removal of uterine fibroids and is unrelated to myasthenia gravis. Choice D, Spleenectomy, is the removal of the spleen and is not a standard treatment for myasthenia gravis.
Question 7 of 9
When the LPN is assisting the patient to use an incentive spirometer, which of the following actions by the patient indicates that the patient needs further teaching on how to use the spirometer?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because exhaling deeply before using the spirometer is incorrect. The purpose of the incentive spirometer is to encourage deep inhalation to improve lung function. Exhaling deeply before using the spirometer goes against this goal and may hinder the effectiveness of the device. Choices A, B, and C are all correct actions when using the spirometer. Taking two normal breaths helps to prepare the lungs, sitting upright optimizes lung expansion, and inhaling deeply to reach the target helps to improve lung ventilation.
Question 8 of 9
A client hyperparathyroidism declines surgery and is to receive hormone replacement therapy with estrogen and progesterone. Which of the following instructions would be most important to include in the client’s teaching plan?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: maintain a moderate exercise. Exercise helps in maintaining bone density, which is crucial in managing hyperparathyroidism. Moderate exercise can also help in weight management and overall health. Choice B, losing weight, can be helpful but not as crucial as exercise. Choice C, jogging 2 miles per day, may be excessive for some individuals and not necessary for managing hyperparathyroidism. Choice D, resting as much as possible, is not recommended as it can lead to muscle weakness and bone loss, which are already concerns in hyperparathyroidism.
Question 9 of 9
A client requires minor surgery for removal of a basal cell tumor. The anesthesiologist administers the anesthetic ketamine hydrochloride (Ketalar), 60g IV. After Ketamine administration, the nurse should monitor the client for:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Muscle rigidity and spasms. Ketamine can cause muscle rigidity and spasms as a side effect. The anesthesiologist should monitor the client for this adverse reaction. Muscle rigidity and spasms are common with ketamine administration and can affect the client's comfort and safety during the procedure. It is important for the nurse to promptly address any signs of muscle rigidity or spasms to prevent complications. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B: Hiccups - Ketamine can cause hiccups, but it is not the primary side effect to monitor for in this scenario. C: Extrapyramidal reactions - Ketamine does not typically cause extrapyramidal reactions. D: Respiratory depression - Ketamine is known for its minimal effect on respiratory depression compared to other anesthetics. Monitoring respiratory depression is still important, but not the primary concern with ketamine administration in this case.