ATI RN
Fundamentals Nursing Process Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient expresses fear of going home and being alone. Vital signs are stable and the incision is nearly completely healed. What can the nurse infer from the subjective data?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: The patient is apprehensive about discharge. The rationale is that the patient's fear of going home and being alone indicates anxiety about leaving the hospital setting. This subjective data suggests that the patient may not feel ready for discharge despite stable vital signs and nearly healed incision. Choices A and B are incorrect because they assume the patient's readiness for self-care without considering emotional factors. Choice D is incorrect as there is no evidence provided that the surgery was unsuccessful.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is reviewing a patient’s plan of care, which includes the nursing diagnostic statement, Impaired physical mobility related to tibial fracture as evidenced by patient’s inability to ambulate. Which part of the diagnostic statement does the nurse need to revise?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Collaborative problem. In the given diagnostic statement, "Impaired physical mobility related to tibial fracture as evidenced by patient’s inability to ambulate," the nurse needs to revise the mention of collaborative problem. The collaborative problem is a health issue that requires the expertise of multiple healthcare providers, whereas the statement provided focuses on a nursing diagnosis related to physical mobility impairment. The etiology (cause), nursing diagnosis, and defining characteristic are all relevant to the nursing diagnostic statement and do not need revision. The collaborative problem aspect is not appropriate in this context as it does not fit the criteria for a collaborative problem.
Question 3 of 9
Wilma is using a portable suction unit at home, What is the amount of suction required by James using this unit?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (10-15 mmHg) because this range is considered safe and effective for suctioning in most cases. Lower suction pressures (such as 2-5 mmHg) may not effectively clear secretions, while higher pressures (20-25 mmHg) can cause tissue damage. Choice C (5-10 mmHg) falls within the safe range but may not provide enough suction for effective clearance. Therefore, the optimal suction pressure for James using the portable suction unit at home is 10-15 mmHg.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is directed to administer a hypotonic intravenous solution. The nurse expects that compensatory mechanisms associated with hypovolemia would cause all of the following symptoms except:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 0.90% sodium chloride. When administering a hypotonic solution like 0.45% sodium chloride or 5% dextrose in water, water moves into the cells causing them to swell. This can exacerbate symptoms of hypovolemia such as low blood pressure and decreased perfusion. However, 0.90% sodium chloride is an isotonic solution and will not further exacerbate hypovolemic symptoms. Choices A, B, and D are hypotonic solutions that can worsen hypovolemic symptoms by causing cellular swelling.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse determines that the patient’s condition has improved and has met expected outcomes. Which step of the nursing process is the nurse exhibiting?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Evaluation. In the nursing process, evaluation involves determining if the patient's condition has improved and if the expected outcomes have been met. The nurse assesses the patient's progress, compares it to the expected outcomes set during planning, and determines the effectiveness of the interventions implemented. This step ensures that the care provided is meeting the patient's needs and helps in making any necessary adjustments to the care plan. Incorrect choices: A: Assessment - This step involves gathering information about the patient's condition and needs at the beginning of the nursing process. B: Planning - Involves setting goals and developing a plan of care based on the assessment data. C: Implementation - Involves carrying out the interventions outlined in the care plan to meet the patient's goals.
Question 6 of 9
Which action indicates a nurse is using critical thinking for implementation of nursing care to patients?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because determining whether an intervention is correct and appropriate for the given situation indicates critical thinking in nursing care implementation. This involves assessing the patient's needs, analyzing the situation, and using evidence-based practice to make informed decisions. This process ensures that interventions are tailored to individual patient needs and promotes safe and effective care delivery. Option B is incorrect because performing a procedure without clinical competency can jeopardize patient safety and is not an example of critical thinking. Option C is incorrect as establishing goals without assessment lacks a foundation in data and may lead to inappropriate care planning. Option D is incorrect as evaluating the effectiveness of interventions is a part of the nursing process but does not specifically demonstrate critical thinking in implementation.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following guidelines should a nursing instructor provide to nursing students who are now responsible for assessing their clients?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because continuous assessment allows for timely identification of changes in the client's condition. This is crucial for providing appropriate and timely interventions. Assessing the client only at specific times (choices B and C) may lead to missing important changes. Choice D is incorrect because assessments should not be limited to physician rounds; they should be ongoing to ensure comprehensive care.
Question 8 of 9
After cancer chemotherapy, a client experiences nausea and vomiting. The nurse should highest priority to which intervention?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because administering antiemetic medications like metoclopramide and dexamethasone helps control nausea and vomiting post-chemotherapy. Metoclopramide acts on the gut to reduce nausea, while dexamethasone decreases inflammation and suppresses the vomiting reflex. Choice A focuses on dietary interventions but does not address the physiological cause of nausea. Choice B with breathing exercises may help some clients but does not directly address the nausea and vomiting. Choice D is incorrect as withholding fluids can lead to dehydration, which is not recommended after chemotherapy.
Question 9 of 9
A mother brings her children into the clinic and they are diagnosed with chickenpox. The mother had chickenpox as a child and is not concerned with contracting the disease when caring for her children. what type of immunity does this mother have?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Active natural immunity. The mother had chickenpox as a child, which triggered her immune system to produce antibodies, providing long-lasting protection. This is an example of active immunity because her immune system actively responded to the pathogen. Summary: B: Passive artificial immunity - This involves receiving pre-made antibodies, not produced by the individual's immune system. C: Passive natural immunity - This is acquired through placental transfer or breastfeeding, not through prior exposure to the pathogen. D: Active artificial immunity - This is acquired through vaccination, not through natural exposure to the pathogen.