ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient expresses distrust in the healthcare system due to previous negative experiences. What is the nurse's best approach to rebuild trust?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because actively listening, acknowledging the patient's concerns, and working towards rebuilding trust through transparency and reliability are essential steps in addressing distrust. By validating the patient's experiences and actively involving them in the process, the nurse can foster a supportive and trusting relationship. Choice A is incorrect because dismissing the patient's concerns can further damage trust and undermine the patient's feelings. Choice C is incorrect as ignoring the distrust can lead to a breakdown in communication and trust. Choice D is incorrect because telling the patient to trust the healthcare system without addressing their concerns is dismissive and unhelpful.
Question 2 of 9
A patient with a suspected autoimmune disorder exhibits antibodies directed against self-antigens, leading to tissue damage and inflammation. Which of the following mechanisms is primarily responsible for the development of autoimmune diseases?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Loss of self-tolerance. This is because autoimmune diseases result from a breakdown in the immune system's ability to distinguish between self and non-self antigens, leading to the production of antibodies against self-antigens. When self-tolerance is lost, immune cells mistakenly target the body's own tissues, causing tissue damage and inflammation. Choice B (Failure of innate immunity) is incorrect because autoimmune diseases are primarily driven by adaptive immunity rather than innate immunity. Choice C (Defective T cell activation) is incorrect as T cells play a critical role in the immune response to self-antigens in autoimmune diseases. Choice D (Impaired phagocytosis) is incorrect as phagocytosis is a mechanism primarily involved in the removal of pathogens, not in the development of autoimmune diseases.
Question 3 of 9
A patient is prescribed a statin medication for lipid-lowering therapy. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor closely in the patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Muscle pain or weakness. Statins can cause muscle-related side effects, including rhabdomyolysis, a severe condition that can lead to muscle pain and weakness. Monitoring for these symptoms is crucial to prevent serious complications. B: Dry cough is not a common side effect of statins. C: Hypertension is not directly associated with statin use. D: Hyperkalemia is not a typical adverse effect of statins.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following structures is responsible for the production of digestive enzymes and bicarbonate-rich pancreatic juice?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Pancreas. The pancreas is responsible for producing digestive enzymes and bicarbonate-rich pancreatic juice. It secretes enzymes like amylase, lipase, and protease to break down carbohydrates, fats, and proteins in the small intestine. The bicarbonate-rich juice helps neutralize stomach acid. The liver (A) produces bile stored in the gallbladder (B), which aids in fat digestion. The spleen (D) is involved in immune function and blood filtration, not digestive enzyme production.
Question 5 of 9
Treatment of a patient without consent can constitute which is defined as intentional and unwanting touching.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: battery. Battery is the intentional and unwanted touching of another person without their consent, which can include medical treatment without consent. This is a clear violation of the patient's autonomy and can lead to legal consequences. Negligence (B) is the failure to exercise reasonable care, not intentional touching. Slander (C) is making false spoken statements that harm someone's reputation. Tort (D) is a broader term referring to civil wrongs, including battery, but not specifically addressing intentional and unwanted touching.
Question 6 of 9
A patient with a history of multiple myeloma demonstrates hypogammaglobulinemia. Which of the following immunoglobulin classes is most likely to be deficient in this patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: IgA. In multiple myeloma, there is a proliferation of abnormal plasma cells, leading to a decrease in normal antibody production. IgA is the most abundant immunoglobulin in mucosal secretions and plays a crucial role in mucosal immunity. Therefore, a deficiency in IgA is common in patients with multiple myeloma. IgG is the most abundant immunoglobulin in the blood and is typically less affected in multiple myeloma. IgM is the first antibody produced in response to an infection and is less likely to be deficient in this case. IgE is primarily involved in allergic responses and is not typically affected in multiple myeloma.
Question 7 of 9
A patient with a history of stroke is prescribed clopidogrel (Plavix) for secondary prevention of thrombotic events. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor closely during clopidogrel therapy?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Platelet count. Platelet count should be monitored closely during clopidogrel therapy because it works by inhibiting platelet aggregation, reducing the risk of clot formation. Monitoring platelet count helps assess the drug's effectiveness and prevent potential complications like bleeding or clotting events. Prothrombin time (A), activated partial thromboplastin time (B), and international normalized ratio (D) are tests that primarily assess the coagulation factors and are not directly affected by clopidogrel therapy, making them less relevant for monitoring this specific medication.
Question 8 of 9
A patient presents with a painful, vesicular rash following a linear pattern on the left forearm. The patient reports a history of gardening without gloves. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Herpes simplex virus infection. The presentation of a painful, vesicular rash following a linear pattern on the left forearm is characteristic of herpes simplex virus infection, specifically herpes zoster (shingles). The linear pattern is due to the virus following a specific nerve pathway. This is different from the other choices - A: Allergic contact dermatitis typically presents as a diffuse rash at the site of contact with an allergen, not a linear pattern. C: Scabies presents with burrows and papules, not vesicles in a linear pattern. D: Poison ivy dermatitis causes a diffuse rash, not a linear vesicular rash.
Question 9 of 9
During the active phase of labor, a woman's cervical dilation is progressing slowly despite regular contractions. What maternal condition should the nurse assess for that may contribute to abnormal labor progression?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: One potential maternal condition that may contribute to abnormal labor progression with slow cervical dilation despite regular contractions is pelvic outlet obstruction. This can occur if the maternal pelvis is too small, misshapen, or has an obstruction such as a fibroid tumor. The inadequate space in the pelvis can prevent the fetus from descending properly and can result in a prolonged or difficult labor. If suspected, interventions such as a cesarean delivery may be necessary to prevent complications for both the mother and baby. It is essential for the nurse to assess for signs of pelvic outlet obstruction and work with the healthcare team to address any issues promptly to ensure a safe delivery.