ATI RN
health assessment exam 1 test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient drifts off to sleep when there is no stimulation. The nurse can arouse her easily by calling her name, but she remains drowsy during the conversation. The best description of this patient's level of consciousness would be:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lethargic. Lethargic is defined as a state of drowsiness or diminished alertness where the patient can be easily aroused by simple stimuli like calling their name, but they remain drowsy and may drift back to sleep. This patient's ability to be aroused by verbal stimuli and their drowsiness during conversation fits the description of lethargic. Explanation for other choices: B: Obtunded - Obtunded refers to a more severe level of decreased consciousness where the patient is difficult to fully arouse and may have limited interactions with the nurse. C: Stuporous - Stuporous indicates an even deeper state of unconsciousness where the patient requires significant stimulation to be aroused and has minimal responsiveness. D: Semialert - Semialert would describe a patient who is more responsive than lethargic, showing better awareness of their surroundings and able to maintain a conversation more effectively.
Question 2 of 9
The interview portion of data collection obtains:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Subjective data. During the interview portion of data collection, subjective data is obtained as it involves personal opinions, feelings, and experiences shared by the interviewee. This data is based on individual perspectives and cannot be measured objectively. Physical data (A) refers to tangible measurements, historical data (B) relates to past events or records, and objective data (C) is based on observable and measurable facts. In contrast, subjective data (D) captures the interviewee's viewpoints and interpretations, making it the most appropriate choice for the given scenario.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The nurse should monitor for signs of which of the following complications?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Respiratory failure. Patients with COPD are at risk for respiratory failure due to impaired gas exchange and respiratory muscle weakness. This can lead to hypoxia and hypercapnia. Monitoring for signs such as increased work of breathing, decreased oxygen saturation, and altered mental status is crucial. Hypoglycemia (A) is not a common complication of COPD. Hyperkalemia (C) is less likely to occur in COPD unless the patient is on medications that can cause elevated potassium levels. Anemia (D) may be present in COPD due to chronic inflammation, but it is not a direct complication that requires monitoring for signs of respiratory failure.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following positions is most appropriate for performing an abdominal examination on an obese patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Place the patient in the supine position. This position allows optimal access to the abdomen for examination due to gravitational forces aiding in organ palpation. Having the patient lie flat (choice B) may not provide adequate access. Positioning the patient on their side (choice D) may limit visibility and palpation. Elevating the head to 45 degrees (choice A) is unnecessary for an abdominal examination on an obese patient.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following is the appropriate health promotion question to ask during a review of symptoms?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Do you use sunscreen while outside?" because it directly relates to health promotion by addressing preventive measures. Sunscreen helps prevent skin cancer and other skin conditions. Choice B is incorrect as it focuses on assessing skin condition rather than promoting health. Choice C is incorrect as it relates to symptoms rather than prevention. Choice D is incorrect as it is related to assessing a specific symptom rather than promoting overall health.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is teaching a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) about dietary changes. Which of the following statements by the patient indicates proper understanding?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. In CKD, limiting potassium and phosphorus intake is crucial to prevent electrolyte imbalances and further kidney damage. Excessive protein intake can worsen kidney function, so the patient should not eat as much protein as they want. Increasing fluid intake is beneficial for hydration, but sodas are not recommended due to their high sugar and phosphorus content, which can be harmful for CKD patients. Therefore, option A is the best choice for proper understanding of dietary changes in CKD.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient with a history of hypertension. The nurse should prioritize which of the following interventions?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administering antihypertensive medication as prescribed. This is the priority intervention because it directly addresses the patient's hypertension, which is a critical condition that needs immediate management to prevent complications. Encouraging weight loss (B), monitoring blood pressure (C), and promoting a low-sodium diet (D) are all important aspects of managing hypertension. However, administering antihypertensive medication takes precedence as it directly targets lowering blood pressure and reducing the risk of cardiovascular events. Weight loss, monitoring, and dietary changes are important for long-term management but may not provide immediate control of hypertension compared to medication.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient who has a history of myocardial infarction. The nurse should prioritize which of the following assessments?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blood pressure and heart rate. This is crucial in assessing the cardiac function of a patient with a history of myocardial infarction. Monitoring blood pressure and heart rate helps in evaluating cardiovascular status and detecting any potential complications. Abnormal values in these parameters can indicate inadequate perfusion to the heart or other organs, which can be life-threatening. Other choices are incorrect because: B: Temperature and respiratory rate are important assessments but not the priority for a patient with a history of myocardial infarction. C: Bowel sounds and abdominal girth are more relevant for gastrointestinal issues and not a priority in this scenario. D: Urine output and skin integrity are important assessments for overall health but do not directly relate to the cardiovascular status in a patient with a history of myocardial infarction.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient who is post-operative following a cesarean section. The nurse should prioritize which of the following interventions?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitoring for signs of hemorrhage. This is the priority intervention because post-cesarean section hemorrhage is a life-threatening complication that requires immediate attention. The nurse should monitor the patient's vital signs, uterine firmness, and amount of vaginal bleeding to detect any signs of hemorrhage and take prompt action if necessary. Option A is incorrect because pain management is important but not the priority in this situation. Option B is also incorrect as breastfeeding can be encouraged after the patient's condition is stable. Option D is not the priority as preventing deep vein thrombosis is important but not as urgent as monitoring for hemorrhage.