A patient drifts off to sleep when there is no stimulation. The nurse can arouse her easily by calling her name, but she remains drowsy during the conversation. The best description of this patient's level of consciousness would be:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lethargic. Lethargic is defined as a state of drowsiness or diminished alertness where the patient can be easily aroused by simple stimuli like calling their name, but they remain drowsy and may drift back to sleep. This patient's ability to be aroused by verbal stimuli and their drowsiness during conversation fits the description of lethargic. Explanation for other choices: B: Obtunded - Obtunded refers to a more severe level of decreased consciousness where the patient is difficult to fully arouse and may have limited interactions with the nurse. C: Stuporous - Stuporous indicates an even deeper state of unconsciousness where the patient requires significant stimulation to be aroused and has minimal responsiveness. D: Semialert - Semialert would describe a patient who is more responsive than lethargic, showing better awareness of their surroundings and able to maintain a conversation more effectively.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. After a stroke, patients need to be evaluated by a healthcare professional before resuming driving. This is crucial to ensure the safety of the patient and others on the road. Choice A shows medication compliance, B demonstrates follow-up care, and D emphasizes monitoring symptoms, all of which are essential post-stroke. However, choice C indicates a lack of understanding about the importance of medical clearance before driving, hence the need for further education.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. This statement indicates a misunderstanding because stopping medication once blood pressure is normal can lead to a relapse of hypertension. Step 1: Medication management is crucial for long-term control of hypertension. Step 2: Stopping medication abruptly can cause blood pressure to rise again. Step 3: Regular monitoring, limiting sodium intake, and exercising are all important aspects of hypertension management. Summary: Choices A, B, and D demonstrate good understanding of hypertension management, while choice C shows a need for further education on the importance of continued medication use.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: "Please describe what happens to you when you take penicillin." This response allows the nurse to gather detailed information about the patient's allergic reaction to penicillin, which is crucial for assessing the severity of the allergy and determining appropriate treatment options. By understanding the specific symptoms experienced by the patient, the nurse can help prevent potential adverse reactions in the future. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because: A: This question does not address the immediate concern of the patient's penicillin allergy and does not help in understanding the nature of the allergic reaction. B: The frequency of penicillin usage is not as relevant as understanding the nature and severity of the allergic reaction. C: While recording allergy information is important, it does not address the need for understanding the patient's specific allergic response to penicillin.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administering antihypertensive medication as prescribed. This is the priority intervention because it directly addresses the patient's hypertension, which is a critical condition that needs immediate management to prevent complications. Encouraging weight loss (B), monitoring blood pressure (C), and promoting a low-sodium diet (D) are all important aspects of managing hypertension. However, administering antihypertensive medication takes precedence as it directly targets lowering blood pressure and reducing the risk of cardiovascular events. Weight loss, monitoring, and dietary changes are important for long-term management but may not provide immediate control of hypertension compared to medication.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blood pressure and heart rate. This is crucial in assessing the cardiac function of a patient with a history of myocardial infarction. Monitoring blood pressure and heart rate helps in evaluating cardiovascular status and detecting any potential complications. Abnormal values in these parameters can indicate inadequate perfusion to the heart or other organs, which can be life-threatening. Other choices are incorrect because: B: Temperature and respiratory rate are important assessments but not the priority for a patient with a history of myocardial infarction. C: Bowel sounds and abdominal girth are more relevant for gastrointestinal issues and not a priority in this scenario. D: Urine output and skin integrity are important assessments for overall health but do not directly relate to the cardiovascular status in a patient with a history of myocardial infarction.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Subjective data. During the interview portion of data collection, subjective data is obtained as it involves personal opinions, feelings, and experiences shared by the interviewee. This data is based on individual perspectives and cannot be measured objectively. Physical data (A) refers to tangible measurements, historical data (B) relates to past events or records, and objective data (C) is based on observable and measurable facts. In contrast, subjective data (D) captures the interviewee's viewpoints and interpretations, making it the most appropriate choice for the given scenario.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Place the patient in the supine position. This position allows optimal access to the abdomen for examination due to gravitational forces aiding in organ palpation. Having the patient lie flat (choice B) may not provide adequate access. Positioning the patient on their side (choice D) may limit visibility and palpation. Elevating the head to 45 degrees (choice A) is unnecessary for an abdominal examination on an obese patient.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct initial question to ask a patient with a positive tuberculin test is whether they have received bacille Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccine. This is because BCG vaccination can cause a false positive result on the tuberculin test due to cross-reactivity with the purified protein derivative (PPD) used in the test. Asking about recent hospitalization (A), homelessness (B), or recent travel out of the country (D) would not provide relevant information regarding the interpretation of the positive tuberculin test.