A patient diagnosed with major depressive disorder does not interact with others except when addressed, and then only in monosyllables. The nurse wants to show nonjudgmental acceptance and support for the patient. Which communication technique will be effective?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Make observations. This technique is effective because it allows the nurse to show nonjudgmental acceptance and support without pressuring the patient to engage in lengthy conversations. By making observations, the nurse can acknowledge the patient's behavior without requiring a response, thus respecting the patient's need for space and limited interaction. Option B: Asking the patient direct questions may feel intrusive and overwhelming for someone with major depressive disorder who is withdrawn. Option C: Phrasing questions to require yes or no answers limits the patient's ability to express themselves fully and may not promote a sense of support and acceptance. Option D: Frequently reassuring the patient to reduce guilt feelings may come across as insincere or patronizing, and may not address the patient's need for nonjudgmental acceptance in communication.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: C is correct because it addresses the patient's concern by explaining the time lag before antidepressants relieve symptoms. It educates the patient on the delayed onset of action for antidepressants, setting realistic expectations. A: Increasing the dose without waiting for the full effect can lead to adverse effects. B: Reassurance without providing education may not address the patient's misunderstanding. D: Critical assessment for improvement is important, but educating the patient about the medication is the immediate priority.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. This statement indicates understanding of potential side effects of TMS, which may include dizziness or mild headaches post-procedure. This shows the patient has grasped the information provided during teaching. Choice A is incorrect as TMS does not require anesthesia. Choice C is incorrect as TMS does not typically require extended recovery time. Choice D is unrelated to the procedure and pertains to dietary restrictions for MAOIs.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor vital signs. This is the priority nursing intervention because amphetamine overdose can lead to serious cardiovascular complications such as tachycardia, hypertension, and arrhythmias. Monitoring vital signs allows the nurse to assess the patient's cardiovascular status and intervene promptly if any abnormalities are detected. Observing for depression (B) is important but not the priority in the immediate aftermath of an overdose. Awakening the patient every 15 minutes (C) may disrupt rest and recovery, which is not ideal. Using warmers to maintain body temperature (D) is not the priority as cardiovascular stability takes precedence.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: hallucinogen ingestion. The individual's symptoms of visual distortions, feelings of detachment from reality, and paranoia are indicative of a hallucinogenic experience. Hallucinogens such as LSD or mushrooms can cause these perceptual disturbances. Vital signs being slightly elevated can also be a sign of hallucinogen use. Schizophrenic episodes (A) typically involve more persistent and complex symptoms over time. Opium intoxication (C) would present with different symptoms such as drowsiness and respiratory depression. Cocaine overdose (D) would exhibit symptoms like agitation, chest pain, and hypertension.