ATI RN
Pharmacology Across the Lifespan ATI Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient diagnosed with heart failure (HF) and taking an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, has developed fibrotic changes in the heart and vessels. Which type of medication will the provider order to counter this development?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Aldosterone antagonist. In heart failure, aldosterone contributes to fibrotic changes in the heart and vessels. Aldosterone antagonists like spironolactone or eplerenone can counteract this development by blocking the effects of aldosterone, reducing fibrosis, and improving cardiac function. Beta blockers (A) help in HF by reducing workload on the heart, ARBs (B) block the effects of angiotensin II but do not directly target aldosterone, DRIs (C) inhibit renin production but do not directly block aldosterone effects.
Question 2 of 5
Below question: don't know the correct combination. Below is what was picked but incorrect. The NP explains to the NP students about penicillin. Which is true about penicillin? Select all that apply
Correct Answer: B,C
Rationale: Answer B is correct because penicillin is indeed a beta-lactam antibiotic, which refers to its chemical structure. Answer C is correct because penicillin primarily targets actively growing and dividing bacteria. Answer A is incorrect because penicillin works by inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis, not by causing bacteria to take up excess water and rupture. Answer D is incorrect because penicillin is bactericidal, meaning it kills bacteria, as opposed to being bacteriostatic, which inhibits bacterial growth.
Question 3 of 5
A patient comes to your clinic having taken an undetermined amount of heroin. The drug of choice for heroin overdose is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Naloxone (Narcan). Naloxone is an opioid receptor antagonist that rapidly reverses the effects of opioid overdose, such as heroin. It competes with opioids for receptor sites in the brain, blocking their effects and reversing respiratory depression, a common complication of opioid overdose. Naltrexone (A) is not used in acute overdose situations. Methadone (B) is a long-acting opioid agonist used for opioid dependence but not for acute overdose. Clonidine (D) is used to manage withdrawal symptoms but does not directly reverse opioid overdose effects. Naloxone is the drug of choice for opioid overdose due to its rapid and effective reversal of opioid effects.
Question 4 of 5
Which patient statement suggests to the provider that the patient's nonadherence with their medication plan is related to dissatisfaction with the therapy?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the patient's statement indicates dissatisfaction with the therapy. The patient expected more weight loss after taking the medication for over a week, suggesting they are not happy with the results. This dissatisfaction may lead to nonadherence. A: Financial issues are a common reason for nonadherence, not necessarily linked to dissatisfaction with therapy. B: Time constraints can also impact adherence but do not directly indicate dissatisfaction with therapy. C: Forgetfulness is a common reason for nonadherence and does not necessarily imply dissatisfaction with therapy.
Question 5 of 5
The recommended range for maintaining serum theophylline levels is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D (10 to 20 ug/ml) for maintaining serum theophylline levels. This range is recommended for therapeutic efficacy with minimal side effects. Levels below 10 ug/ml may not be effective, while levels above 20 ug/ml can lead to toxicity. Choice A (20 to 25 ug/ml) and Choice B (30 to 40 ug/ml) are too high and could result in toxicity. Choice C (0.05 to 2 ug/ml) is too low for therapeutic effect. Therefore, maintaining theophylline levels within the range of 10 to 20 ug/ml is the ideal balance for effective treatment.