ATI RN
test bank foundations of nursing Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient diagnosed with cervical cancer will soon begin a round of radiation therapy. When planning the patients subsequent care, the nurse should prioritize actions with what goal?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Protecting the safety of the patient, family, and staff. This is the priority when planning care for a patient undergoing radiation therapy due to the potential risks of radiation exposure to others. Ensuring safety involves implementing proper radiation safety protocols, educating the patient and family on safety measures, and providing a safe environment for all. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Preventing hemorrhage is important but not the top priority during radiation therapy. Ensuring the patient understands the treatment's purpose is essential but not the immediate priority. Adherence to dietary restrictions is important for overall health but is not the primary focus when prioritizing actions for radiation therapy.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is assessing the skin integrity of a patient who has AIDS. When performing this inspection, the nurse should prioritize assessment of what skin surfaces?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Perianal region and oral mucosa. In patients with AIDS, these areas are more prone to opportunistic infections due to decreased immune function. The perianal region can be affected by conditions like anal warts or herpes, while the oral mucosa can develop oral thrush or other oral infections. By prioritizing assessment of these areas, the nurse can promptly identify any potential issues and initiate appropriate interventions. Choice B: Sacral region and lower abdomen are not typically high-risk areas for skin integrity issues in AIDS patients. Choice C: Scalp and skin over the scapulae are not commonly affected by opportunistic infections related to AIDS. Choice D: Axillae and upper thorax are not as commonly affected as the perianal region and oral mucosa in AIDS patients.
Question 3 of 9
A medical nurse is providing palliative care to a patient with a diagnosis of end-stage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). What is the primary goal of this nurses care?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: To improve the patients and familys quality of life. In palliative care for end-stage COPD, the primary goal is to enhance quality of life by managing symptoms, providing emotional support, and ensuring comfort. Choice B is incorrect as palliative care focuses on comfort rather than aggressive treatments. Choice C is incorrect because palliative care encompasses not only physical but also emotional, social, and spiritual support. Choice D is incorrect as the goal is to provide holistic care rather than separate plans for each discipline. Ultimately, the primary focus of palliative care in this scenario is to improve the overall quality of life for the patient and their family.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse in an allergy clinic is educating a new patient about the pathology of the patients health problem. What response should the nurse describe as a possible consequence of histamine release?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Contraction of bronchial smooth muscle. Histamine release can lead to bronchoconstriction, which narrows the airways and causes difficulty in breathing. This is a common symptom in allergic reactions like asthma. Constriction of small venules (Choice A) is not a typical consequence of histamine release. Dilation of large blood vessels (Choice C) is more associated with histamine's role in increasing vascular permeability. Decreased secretions from gastric and mucosal cells (Choice D) is not directly related to histamine's effects on smooth muscle contraction.
Question 5 of 9
Which intervention is the priority for the patient diagnosed with an intact tubal pregnancy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administration of methotrexate. This is the priority intervention for an intact tubal pregnancy to prevent further growth and potential rupture of the fallopian tube. Methotrexate is a medication used to stop the growth of the pregnancy tissue. Assessment of pain level (A) is important but not the priority as immediate intervention to address the ectopic pregnancy is crucial. Administration of Rh immune globulin (C) is not the priority in this situation, as it is typically given after a miscarriage or abortion to prevent Rh sensitization. Explanation of common side effects (D) is important for patient education, but it is not the immediate priority when dealing with an ectopic pregnancy.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is describing the purposes of a healthcare record to a group of nursing students. Which purposes will the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all thatapply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Communication. Healthcare records are essential for effective communication among healthcare providers to ensure continuity of care. They help convey important information about a patient's condition, treatment plan, and progress. Explanation: 1. Communication: Healthcare records facilitate communication between different healthcare team members, ensuring coordinated and efficient care delivery. 2. Legal documentation: While important, legal documentation is a separate purpose of healthcare records, not directly related to communication. 3. Reimbursement: Healthcare records are used for billing and reimbursement purposes, but this is not directly related to communication. 4. Nursing process: The nursing process involves assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation, and evaluation of patient care, which is documented in healthcare records. However, this is not a primary purpose related to communication.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is writing a care plan for a patient with brain metastases. The nurse decides that an appropriate nursing diagnosis is anxiety related to lack of control over the health circumstances. In establishing this plan of care for the patient, the nurse should include what intervention?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because encouraging the patient to verbalize concerns can help alleviate anxiety by allowing the patient to express emotions and fears. This intervention promotes emotional expression and provides an outlet for the patient to discuss their worries. This can lead to increased understanding and support. Incorrect answers: A: Administering antianxiety medications does not address the underlying cause of anxiety and may lead to dependency. B: Instructing the family on planning care does not directly address the patient's anxiety. D: Distracting the patient may provide temporary relief but does not address the root cause of anxiety related to lack of control over health circumstances.
Question 8 of 9
A 5-year-old boy has been diagnosed with a severe food allergy. What is an important parameter to address when educating the parents of this child about his allergy and care?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Wear a medical identification bracelet. This is important because in case of an emergency, such as an allergic reaction, medical professionals need to be aware of the child's severe food allergy quickly. The bracelet provides crucial information that can help in providing timely and appropriate medical care. B: Knowing how to use the antihistamine pen is also important in managing allergic reactions, but wearing a medical identification bracelet takes precedence as it provides immediate identification of the allergy. C: Knowing how to give injections of lidocaine is not relevant to managing a food allergy in a child. D: Avoiding live attenuated vaccinations may be necessary for individuals with certain allergies, but it is not directly related to educating parents about managing the child's food allergy.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is admitting a patient to the unit who is scheduled to have an ossiculoplasty. What postoperative assessment will best determine whether the procedure has been successful?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Audiometry. Postoperative audiometry is the most appropriate assessment to determine the success of ossiculoplasty, as it evaluates the patient's hearing function and any improvements made by the surgery. Otoscopy (A) is a visual examination of the ear canal and may not provide comprehensive information on hearing. Balance testing (C) assesses equilibrium and is not directly related to the success of ossiculoplasty. Culture and sensitivity testing (D) of ear discharge is used to identify infections and would not directly indicate the success of the surgery.