ATI RN
test bank foundations of nursing Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient diagnosed with cervical cancer will soon begin a round of radiation therapy. When planning the patients subsequent care, the nurse should prioritize actions with what goal?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Protecting the safety of the patient, family, and staff. This is the priority when planning care for a patient undergoing radiation therapy due to the potential risks of radiation exposure to others. Ensuring safety involves implementing proper radiation safety protocols, educating the patient and family on safety measures, and providing a safe environment for all. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Preventing hemorrhage is important but not the top priority during radiation therapy. Ensuring the patient understands the treatment's purpose is essential but not the immediate priority. Adherence to dietary restrictions is important for overall health but is not the primary focus when prioritizing actions for radiation therapy.
Question 2 of 9
Which intervention is the priority for the patient diagnosed with an intact tubal pregnancy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administration of methotrexate. This is the priority intervention for an intact tubal pregnancy to prevent further growth and potential rupture of the fallopian tube. Methotrexate is a medication used to stop the growth of the pregnancy tissue. Assessment of pain level (A) is important but not the priority as immediate intervention to address the ectopic pregnancy is crucial. Administration of Rh immune globulin (C) is not the priority in this situation, as it is typically given after a miscarriage or abortion to prevent Rh sensitization. Explanation of common side effects (D) is important for patient education, but it is not the immediate priority when dealing with an ectopic pregnancy.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is providing health education to a patient newly diagnosed with glaucoma. The nurse teaches the patient that this disease has a familial tendency. The nurse should encourage the patients immediate family members to undergo clinical examinations how often?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: At least once every 2 years. Glaucoma has a familial tendency, meaning it can run in families. Regular eye exams are crucial for early detection and treatment. Having family members undergo clinical examinations every 2 years allows for timely identification of any potential signs of glaucoma. Monthly exams (A) would be too frequent and unnecessary. Exams every 5 years (C) or 10 years (D) are too infrequent and may miss early signs of the disease. Regular biennial exams strike a balance between early detection and practicality.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse wants to find all the pertinent patientinformation in one record, regardless of the number of times the patient entered the health care system. Which record should the nurse find?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Electronic health record. An Electronic Health Record (EHR) contains comprehensive health information about an individual that is collected across different health care providers and organizations. This includes medical history, diagnoses, medications, treatment plans, immunization dates, allergies, radiology images, and laboratory test results. The EHR is designed to be accessible by authorized healthcare providers and ensures that all pertinent patient information is available in one centralized record, regardless of the number of times the patient entered the health care system. A: Electronic medical record (EMR) typically contains information from a single provider or organization. C: Electronic charting record is more focused on documenting care provided during a specific encounter. D: Electronic problem record is limited to tracking specific health issues or conditions.
Question 5 of 9
Spontaneous termination of a pregnancy is considered to be an abortion if
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because spontaneous termination of a pregnancy is considered an abortion if it occurs before 20 weeks gestation. This is based on the medical definition of abortion as the termination of a pregnancy before the fetus is able to survive outside the womb. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the criteria for defining abortion. B and D are specific conditions related to the fetus and the presence of infection, while C refers to passing products of conception intact, which can happen in both spontaneous and induced abortions.
Question 6 of 9
The clinic nurse is assessing a child who has been brought to the clinic with signs and symptoms that are suggestive of otitis externa. What assessment finding is characteristic of otitis externa?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Pain on manipulation of the auricle is characteristic of otitis externa. This is because otitis externa is an infection or inflammation of the outer ear canal, causing pain and tenderness when the ear is touched or manipulated. A: Tophi on the pinna and ear lobe is characteristic of gout, not otitis externa. B: Dark yellow cerumen in the external auditory canal is common and not specific to otitis externa. D: Air bubbles visible in the middle ear are associated with otitis media, not otitis externa. In summary, pain on manipulation of the auricle is a key assessment finding in otitis externa, distinguishing it from other ear conditions.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse in an allergy clinic is educating a new patient about the pathology of the patients health problem. What response should the nurse describe as a possible consequence of histamine release?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Contraction of bronchial smooth muscle. Histamine release can lead to bronchoconstriction, which narrows the airways and causes difficulty in breathing. This is a common symptom in allergic reactions like asthma. Constriction of small venules (Choice A) is not a typical consequence of histamine release. Dilation of large blood vessels (Choice C) is more associated with histamine's role in increasing vascular permeability. Decreased secretions from gastric and mucosal cells (Choice D) is not directly related to histamine's effects on smooth muscle contraction.
Question 8 of 9
A 57-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining that when he has an erection his penis curves and becomes painful. The patients diagnosis is identified as severe Peyronies disease. The nurse should be aware of what likely treatment modality?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Surgery. Surgery is the most effective treatment modality for severe Peyronie's disease as it can correct the penile curvature and alleviate pain. Physical therapy (A) may not be effective in severe cases. PDE-5 inhibitors (B) are used for erectile dysfunction but do not treat the underlying Peyronie's disease. Intracapsular hydrocortisone injections (C) may be used for less severe cases, but in severe cases, surgery is recommended for optimal outcomes.
Question 9 of 9
A pediatric nurse is emotionally distraught by the death of a 9-year-old girl who received care on the unit over the course of many admissions spanning several years. What action is the most appropriate response to the nurses own grief?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because taking time off from work to mourn allows the nurse to process their emotions and prevent burnout. This self-care step promotes mental well-being and helps prevent the nurse from being overwhelmed by their grief. Choice B is incorrect as it may prolong the grieving process and create a constant reminder of the loss. Choice C could potentially burden the patient's family with the nurse's grief, making it an inappropriate action. Choice D, attending the memorial service, may be emotionally challenging and may not provide the nurse with the necessary space to cope with their grief effectively.