ATI RN
foundations of nursing test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient diagnosed with Bells palsy is being cared for on an outpatient basis. During health education, the nurse should promote which of the following actions?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer A: Applying a protective eye shield at night is crucial for a patient with Bell's palsy to prevent corneal abrasions due to incomplete eyelid closure. This action helps protect the eye from dryness and injury, which can occur due to decreased blinking and moisture. It is essential to maintain eye health and prevent complications. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: Chewing on the affected side does not prevent unilateral neglect in Bell's palsy. Instead, encouraging balanced chewing and facial exercises would be more beneficial. C: Avoiding the use of analgesics is not necessary for Bell's palsy management unless contraindicated, as pain management may be required for associated symptoms. D: Avoiding brushing the teeth is not recommended. Good oral hygiene is important for overall health, including maintaining oral health during Bell's palsy.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is teaching a patient about the urinarysystem. In which order will the nurse present the structures, following the flow of urine?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct order is B: Kidney, ureters, bladder, urethra. 1. Kidneys filter blood and produce urine. 2. Ureters transport urine from kidneys to bladder. 3. Bladder stores urine until expelled. 4. Urethra carries urine from bladder out of the body. Other choices are incorrect because they do not follow the anatomical flow of urine through the urinary system.
Question 3 of 9
A patient who has AIDS has been admitted for the treatment of Kaposis sarcoma. What nursing diagnosis should the nurse associate with this complication of AIDS?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B) Impaired Skin Integrity Related to Kaposis Sarcoma. Kaposis sarcoma can cause skin lesions that may lead to impaired skin integrity due to tissue breakdown. The nurse should prioritize interventions to prevent infection and promote wound healing. Choice A is incorrect because Disuse Syndrome is not directly related to Kaposis Sarcoma. Choice C, Diarrhea, is not a common complication of Kaposis Sarcoma. Choice D, Impaired Swallowing, is not typically associated with Kaposis Sarcoma.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is creating a care plan for a patient suffering from allergic rhinitis. Which of the following outcomes should the nurse identify?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Improved coping with lifestyle modifications. This outcome is appropriate for a patient with allergic rhinitis as it focuses on helping the patient manage the condition through lifestyle changes, such as avoiding allergens and using medications as prescribed. By improving coping skills, the patient can better manage symptoms and reduce the impact of allergic rhinitis on daily life. Rationale: 1. A: Appropriate use of prophylactic antibiotics is not relevant for allergic rhinitis, which is not typically treated with antibiotics. 2. B: Safe injection of corticosteroids is not a primary treatment for allergic rhinitis and may not be necessary for all patients. 3. C: Improved skin integrity is not a priority outcome for allergic rhinitis, as it primarily affects the respiratory system, not the skin. Summary: Improving coping with lifestyle modifications is the most relevant outcome for a patient with allergic rhinitis, as it addresses the management of symptoms and overall quality of
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is caring for a group of patients. Which patient will the nurse seefirst?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the nurse should prioritize the patient who has been receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) infusing with the same tubing for 26 hours. This patient needs to be seen first to monitor for any potential complications or issues related to TPN administration. Choice A can be ruled out because 50 hours is longer than 26 hours. Choices C and D involve enteral feeding, which is important but generally less critical than TPN. Additionally, choice D has a shorter duration than choice B. Therefore, choice B is the most time-sensitive and critical patient to assess first.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse should recognize the greatest risk for the development of blindness in which of the following patients?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because macular degeneration is a leading cause of blindness in older adults. The macula is responsible for central vision, crucial for tasks like reading and driving. Macular degeneration can lead to permanent vision loss if not managed promptly. The other choices are less likely to result in blindness: astigmatism, hyperopia, and myopia are refractive errors that can be corrected with glasses or contacts, and they do not typically lead to blindness. The age and condition of the patient are important factors in determining the risk of blindness.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is addressing condom use in the context of a health promotion workshop. When discussing the correct use of condoms, what should the nurse tell the attendees?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hold the condom by the cuff upon withdrawal. This is important because holding the condom by the cuff helps prevent any potential spillage of bodily fluids. During withdrawal, holding the condom by the base prevents it from slipping off and minimizes the risk of exposure to sexually transmitted infections. Explanation of why other choices are incorrect: A: Attaching the condom prior to erection is incorrect as it may lead to breakage or slipping off during intercourse. B: Reusing a condom with the same partner is highly discouraged due to the risk of breakage, reduced effectiveness, and potential exposure to infections. C: Using skin lotion as a lubricant is not recommended as it can degrade the condom material, increasing the risk of breakage.
Question 8 of 9
A patient is scheduled for enucleation and the nurse is providing anticipatory guidance about postoperative care. What aspects of care should the nurse describe to the patient? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Application of topical antibiotic ointment. After enucleation, there is a risk of infection at the surgical site. By applying topical antibiotic ointment as directed, the patient can help prevent infection and promote healing. This is a crucial aspect of postoperative care. B: Maintenance of a supine position for the first 48 hours postoperative is incorrect. Patients may be advised to avoid lying flat on their back to prevent complications such as pressure on the surgical site. C: Fluid restriction to prevent orbital edema is incorrect. Fluid restriction is not typically necessary post-enucleation unless specifically advised by the healthcare provider. D: Administration of loop diuretics to prevent orbital edema is incorrect. Loop diuretics are not typically used for preventing orbital edema post-enucleation. E: Use of an ocular pressure dressing is incorrect. While dressings may be used postoperatively, the application of topical antibiotic ointment is more
Question 9 of 9
A 60-year-old man presents at the clinic complaining that his breasts are tender and enlarging. The patient is subsequently diagnosed with gynecomastia. The patient should be assessed for the possibility of what causative factor?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Medication adverse effects. Gynecomastia in a 60-year-old man is often caused by medications like spironolactone, cimetidine, and certain antipsychotics. To determine the causative factor, a thorough medication history review is crucial. Age-related physiologic changes (choice A) do not typically lead to gynecomastia in men. Poor nutrition (choice C) and fluid overload (choice D) are not common causes of gynecomastia in this context.