A patient consulted a stomatologist about purulent inflammation of his gums. What drug will be the most effective if it is suspected that a causative agent is an anaerobe?

Questions 81

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Microbiology An Evolving Science Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

A patient consulted a stomatologist about purulent inflammation of his gums. What drug will be the most effective if it is suspected that a causative agent is an anaerobe?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Metronidazole. Anaerobic bacteria are sensitive to metronidazole due to its mechanism of action targeting their DNA. Metronidazole is often the drug of choice for treating infections caused by anaerobic bacteria. Gentamicin, Oxacillin, and Co-trimoxazole are not effective against anaerobes. Gentamicin is an aminoglycoside mostly used for aerobic bacteria, Oxacillin is a beta-lactam antibiotic effective against gram-positive bacteria, and Co-trimoxazole is a combination of sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim mainly used for urinary tract infections and some respiratory infections.

Question 2 of 9

What type of immunity is responsible for the agglutination of viruses:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Humoral immunity. Humoral immunity involves the production of antibodies by B cells that can bind to antigens on viruses, leading to their agglutination. This process prevents the spread of the virus in the body. Passive immunity (A) involves receiving pre-formed antibodies, not the production of antibodies. Cell-mediated immunity (C) involves the activation of T cells, not the direct agglutination of viruses. Non-specific immunity (D) refers to general defense mechanisms like inflammation and fever, not targeted agglutination of viruses.

Question 3 of 9

Which bacteria is known for causing tuberculosis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Mycobacterium tuberculosis. This bacterium is known for causing tuberculosis, as it specifically infects the lungs and can lead to serious respiratory issues. Mycobacterium leprae (Choice B) causes leprosy, not tuberculosis. Escherichia coli (Choice C) is a common bacteria found in the intestines and is not associated with tuberculosis. Streptococcus pneumoniae (Choice D) causes pneumonia, but not tuberculosis. Therefore, the correct choice is A because Mycobacterium tuberculosis is the specific bacterium responsible for causing tuberculosis.

Question 4 of 9

A patient being treated in the burns department has suppurative complication. The pus is of bluish- green color that is indicative of infection caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa. What factor is typical for this causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gram-negative stain. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a gram-negative bacterium, as indicated by the bluish-green pus color. This bacterium has an outer membrane that retains the crystal violet stain, making it appear pink/red after the counterstain with safranin in Gram staining. The other choices are incorrect because Pseudomonas aeruginosa does not typically form spores (B), has a rod-shaped morphology rather than a coccal form (C), and does not exhibit cell pairing (D).

Question 5 of 9

Specify the most commonly used parameters for autoclaving sterilization:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because it specifies the commonly used parameters for autoclaving sterilization: 1.0 atm pressure, 120º C temperature, and 15-20 minutes duration. This combination ensures effective sterilization by providing the necessary heat and pressure for killing microorganisms. Rationale: 1. Pressure of 1.0 atm: Standard atmospheric pressure commonly used in autoclaving. 2. Temperature of 120º C: Optimal temperature for sterilization without causing damage to heat-sensitive materials. 3. Duration of 15-20 minutes: Time required for heat and pressure to penetrate and kill microorganisms effectively. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: Incorrect temperature and duration, too high and long, may damage materials. C: Incorrect pressure and temperature, higher pressure and temperature not commonly used. D: Incorrect temperature, too high, can damage materials, and duration is longer than necessary.

Question 6 of 9

Endotoxins are released upon:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because endotoxins are part of the outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria. When these bacteria undergo cell lysis, the endotoxins are released, causing harmful effects. This process does not occur during bacterial replication (choice A), antibody production (choice C), or formation of spores (choice D). Bacterial replication involves the creation of new bacterial cells, not the release of endotoxins. Antibody production is the immune response to pathogens, not the direct cause of endotoxin release. Spores are dormant structures formed by some bacteria, which are not directly related to the release of endotoxins.

Question 7 of 9

Bacteria that have been identified as frequently responsible for nonsexually transmitted infections of the reproductive system include:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A (Escherichia coli, Gardnerella vaginalis, and Staphylococcus aureus) because they are known to commonly cause nonsexually transmitted infections of the reproductive system. Escherichia coli can cause urinary tract infections that can ascend to the reproductive system. Gardnerella vaginalis is associated with bacterial vaginosis, a common infection of the vagina. Staphylococcus aureus can cause infections in the reproductive system through various means. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect: B: Streptococcus faecalis, Klebsiella oxytoca, and Serratia marcescens are not commonly associated with reproductive system infections. C: Clostridium tetani and Bacillus cereus are not typically involved in reproductive system infections. D: Neisseria gonorrhoeae causes sexually transmitted infections, Helicobacter pylori causes gastrointestinal issues, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa is more

Question 8 of 9

Which of the following can be used for specific prophylaxis of pertussis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pertussis toxoid. This is because pertussis toxoid is a component of the pertussis vaccine, which provides specific prophylaxis against pertussis by stimulating the immune system to produce antibodies against the bacteria causing the disease. Choice B, killed vaccine, is incorrect as it does not specify pertussis toxoid. Choice C, wide-spectrum antibiotics, is incorrect as antibiotics are used for treatment, not prophylaxis. Choice D, None of the above, is incorrect as pertussis toxoid is specifically used for prophylaxis of pertussis.

Question 9 of 9

The cell envelope in gram positive bacteria is:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Two-layer. In gram-positive bacteria, the cell envelope consists of two layers: the thick peptidoglycan layer and the cytoplasmic membrane. The peptidoglycan layer is much thicker compared to gram-negative bacteria, providing structural support and protection. The cytoplasmic membrane is located beneath the peptidoglycan layer and serves as a barrier between the cytoplasm and the external environment. The other choices are incorrect because gram-positive bacteria do have a cell envelope, it is composed of two layers, not three layers, and it is not just a single layer. Choice D is incorrect as it states that there is no cell envelope in gram-positive bacteria, which is not true.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days