A patient consulted a doctor about bowels disfunction. The doctor established symptoms of duodenitis and enteritis. Laboratory examination helped to make the following diagnosis: lambliosis. What medication should be administered?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: Metronidazole is the drug of choice for treating lambliosis due to its effectiveness against Giardia lamblia, the parasite causing the infection. Metronidazole works by disrupting the DNA structure of the parasite, leading to its death. Erythromycin (choice B) is not effective against Giardia lamblia. Monomycin (choice C) and Chingamin (choice D) are not commonly used for treating lambliosis. Therefore, choice A, Metronidazole, is the correct medication for this patient.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: IFA - Immunofluorescence assay. Toxoplasmosis and chronic gonorrhea can be detected using serological tests like IFA. IFA detects specific antibodies in the patient's serum by using fluorescently labeled antibodies. This method is highly sensitive and specific for detecting both acute and latent infections. Explanation of Incorrect Choices: A: RIHA - Reverse indirect hemagglutination assay - This test is not commonly used for detecting toxoplasmosis or chronic gonorrhea. B: RDHA - Reverse direct hemagglutination assay - This test is not typically used for these specific infections. D: Immunoblot analysis - While Immunoblot analysis is a useful confirmatory test for certain infections, it is not the primary method for detecting toxoplasmosis or chronic gonorrhea.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Carbenicillin disodium. Carbenicillin is a semisynthetic penicillin that has marked activity against Pseudomonas aeruginosa. This is due to its extended spectrum of activity and increased stability against beta-lactamases produced by Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Carbenicillin is commonly used to treat infections caused by this bacterium. Choice B: Benzylpenicillin (Penicillin G) has limited activity against Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Choice C: Methicillin is not effective against Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Choice D: Oxacillin also has limited activity against Pseudomonas aeruginosa. In summary, Carbenicillin is the correct choice due to its marked activity against Pseudomonas aeruginosa compared to the other penicillins listed.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Helicobacterial infection. This is the most probable leading mechanism of disease development in this case because the patient's symptoms, such as heartburn, epigastric pain, food intolerance, and presence of a duodenal ulcer with a positive urease test, are classic signs of Helicobacter pylori infection. This bacterium colonizes the stomach lining, leading to inflammation and ulcer formation. The exacerbations in spring and autumn could be due to seasonal variations in immune response. Choice B: Dietary allergy is incorrect because the symptoms and findings in the patient are more indicative of an infectious etiology rather than an allergic reaction to specific foods. Choice C: Autoantibody production is unlikely as there are no indications of an autoimmune process in this case. Choice D: Reduced prostaglandin synthesis is not the leading mechanism as the symptoms and findings are more consistent with an infectious cause rather than a deficiency in prostaglandin synthesis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fluconazole. 1. Fluconazole is an antifungal agent effective against Candida species commonly causing candidiasis. 2. Streptomycin (B) is an antibiotic used for bacterial infections, not fungal. 3. Phthalylsulfathiazole (C) is an antibacterial agent, not antifungal. 4. Ampicillin (D) is a β-lactam antibiotic, which can actually contribute to fungal infections like candidiasis.