A patient complains of knee pain on your arrival in the room. What should your first sentence be after greeting the patient?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Asking the patient to describe what happened provides crucial information about the onset, possible cause, and nature of the knee pain. This helps in understanding the context and determining the appropriate follow-up questions or examinations. Option A focuses solely on pain intensity, neglecting important context. Option B assumes a past injury without gathering current information. Option C asks for a specific timeframe without capturing the full picture of the pain episode.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Beginning the interview by asking open, friendly questions about school and hobbies is the correct approach to establish rapport with a 15-year-old patient. This strategy helps create a comfortable and non-threatening environment, allowing the adolescent to feel more at ease and willing to engage in the conversation. By showing genuine interest in the patient's personal life and interests, you are demonstrating respect and building trust. This approach also allows the adolescent to feel heard and valued, which can lead to more open and honest communication during the rest of the interview. It sets a positive tone for the interaction and helps establish a connection before delving into more sensitive topics related to health.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because a Hill-Sachs lesion is indeed a compression fracture of the posterolateral aspect of the humeral head caused by abutment against the anterior rim of the glenoid fossa. This occurs during anterior shoulder dislocations. Option A is incorrect because a Hill-Sachs lesion is associated with anterior, not posterior, dislocations. Option B is incorrect because shoulder instability due to a Hill-Sachs lesion depends on the size and location of the defect, not a specific percentage of the articular surface. Option D is incorrect because Speed's test is used to assess biceps tendon pathology, not Hill-Sachs lesions.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Extensor pollicis brevis (EPB) and abductor pollicis longus (APL). These two tendons make up the first dorsal compartment of the wrist. The EPB is responsible for extending the thumb, while the APL is responsible for abducting the thumb. The other choices are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the tendons that comprise the first dorsal compartment. Choice B incorrectly pairs the extensor pollicis longus (EPL) and abductor pollicis brevis (APB). Choice C lists extensor carpi radialis longus and APL, which are not part of the first dorsal compartment. Choice D pairs extensor carpi radialis brevis and APB, which is also incorrect.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because a swan neck deformity is characterized by hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) and proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joints, along with flexion deformity at the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint. This leads to a finger resembling a swan's neck shape. Choice A is incorrect because it describes hyperextension at the DIP joint, which is not typical of a swan neck deformity. Choice B is incorrect as it refers to synovitis and ligament disruption at the ulnar styloid, which is unrelated to a swan neck deformity. Choice C is incorrect as it describes hyperextension at the DIP joint instead of flexion deformity. In summary, the correct answer, D, accurately describes the key features of a swan neck deformity, making it the most appropriate choice among the options provided.