ATI RN
Microbiology A Systems Approach Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient complains of acute spastic abdominal pain, frequent urge to defecate, liquid bloody feces with mucus. Laboratory analysis of fecal smear revealed inconstant in shape organisms with erythrocyte. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Amebiasis. Amebiasis is caused by the parasite Entamoeba histolytica, presenting with symptoms like acute abdominal pain, bloody diarrhea with mucus, and inconstant shape organisms seen in fecal smear. The presence of erythrocytes supports the diagnosis due to the parasite's ability to invade intestinal mucosa causing bleeding. Choice B (Lambliasis) presents with different symptoms like steatorrhea and fatigue. Choice C (Schistosomiasis) is mainly associated with liver and urinary symptoms. Choice D (Intestinal trichomoniasis) commonly presents with watery diarrhea and does not typically cause bloody stools. Therefore, based on the patient's symptoms and fecal smear findings, Amebiasis is the most likely diagnosis.
Question 2 of 9
Bacterial infections of the female reproductive system include:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Vaginitis is a common bacterial infection in the female reproductive system. 2. Toxic shock syndrome can be caused by certain bacterial infections. 3. Endometritis is inflammation of the endometrium often due to bacterial infections. 4. Salpingitis is inflammation of the fallopian tubes, commonly caused by bacteria. Summary: - Choice B: Nephritis is a kidney infection, not related to female reproductive system infections. - Choice C: Nephritis and cystitis are not specific to the female reproductive system. - Choice D: Cystitis is a bladder infection, not typically considered part of female reproductive system infections.
Question 3 of 9
A 49-year-old countryman got an itching papule on the dorsum of his right hand. In the centre there is a vesicle with serosanginous exudate. Within the next 2 days the patient developed a painless edema of hand and forearm. On the 4th day the temperature rose to 38,5oC, in the right axillary region a large painful lymph node was found. One daybefore the onset of the disease the patient had examined a dead calf. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The most likely diagnosis is D: Lymphocutaneous tularemia. The key clues include exposure to a dead animal, vesicle with serosanginous exudate, painless edema progressing to lymph node involvement, and fever. Tularemia is caused by Francisella tularensis, commonly acquired through contact with infected animals. The characteristic ulcer at the site of entry, lymphadenopathy, and systemic symptoms point towards tularemia. Cutaneous anthrax (A) presents with a painless ulcer and black eschar. Bubonic plague (B) typically presents with buboes (swollen lymph nodes) and fever. Carbuncle (C) is a deep skin infection typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus.
Question 4 of 9
Peptidoglycan is typically found in the:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Peptidoglycan is a major component of bacterial cell walls, providing structural support and protection. The correct answer is A because peptidoglycan is typically found in the cell wall of bacteria. The cell wall is crucial for maintaining the shape of the bacterial cell and protecting it from external stresses. The plasma membrane (choice B) is primarily composed of phospholipids and proteins, not peptidoglycan. The nucleus (choice C) is found in eukaryotic cells and contains genetic material, not peptidoglycan. The endoplasmic reticulum (choice D) is an organelle involved in protein synthesis and lipid metabolism, but it does not contain peptidoglycan. Therefore, the correct answer is A as peptidoglycan is typically found in the cell wall of bacteria.
Question 5 of 9
Antibiotics for multiple-resistant microorganisms are:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Imipenem. Imipenem is a carbapenem antibiotic effective against multiple-resistant microorganisms due to its broad spectrum and resistance to beta-lactamases. It is often used as a last resort for severe infections. Ampicillin (A) and Penicillin (B) are both beta-lactam antibiotics that are less effective against multiple-resistant microorganisms due to widespread resistance mechanisms. Augmentin (C) is a combination of amoxicillin and clavulanic acid, which may have limited efficacy against certain resistant strains but is not as effective as imipenem for treating infections caused by multiple-resistant microorganisms.
Question 6 of 9
Which structure in bacteria allows them to exchange genetic material during conjugation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Pili in bacteria are responsible for conjugation, allowing the transfer of genetic material between cells. They form a bridge between donor and recipient cells, facilitating the exchange of DNA. Flagella are for movement, capsules for protection, and ribosomes for protein synthesis. Pili is the only structure directly involved in genetic material exchange.
Question 7 of 9
Generalization of an intestine infection can be seen in
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Salmonella typhi causes typhoid fever, which can lead to intestinal infections. 2. Shigella flexneri causes dysentery, primarily affecting the colon. 3. Helicobacter pylori causes stomach ulcers, not intestine infections. Summary: A is correct as Salmonella typhi causes intestine infection. B and C are incorrect as they cause different gastrointestinal issues. D is incorrect as A is a valid choice.
Question 8 of 9
The following spore-forming bacteria can be preserved in soil over a long period of time: clostridia of tetanus, botulism, anaerobic gas infection. Name the way with which these microorganisms get into soil.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Clostridia of tetanus, botulism, anaerobic gas infection are spore-forming bacteria. Step 2: Spores are resistant structures that allow bacteria to survive in harsh conditions. Step 3: Feces contain these spore-forming bacteria due to contamination. Step 4: When feces are deposited on soil, the spores of these bacteria enter the soil. Step 5: Spores can remain dormant in soil for long periods. Summary: Choice A is correct as spore-forming bacteria enter soil through feces, which act as a source of contamination. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not involve the direct introduction of spores into soil like feces do.
Question 9 of 9
Basing upon the data of laboratory assessment of sanitary state of soil in a certain territory, the soil was found to be low-contaminated according to the sanitary indicative value; contaminated according to the coli titer; low-contaminated according to the anaerobe titer (Cl. perfringens). This is indicative of:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: The soil is low-contaminated according to the sanitary indicative value, which indicates that the contamination is recent. Step 2: The soil is contaminated according to coli titer, suggesting the presence of coliform bacteria typically found in fresh fecal matter. Step 3: The soil is low-contaminated according to the anaerobe titer (Cl. perfringens), which is an indicator of recent fecal contamination. Step 4: Based on the above steps, the correct answer is A: Fresh fecal contamination, as the presence of coliform bacteria and recent anaerobe titer levels point to recent fecal contamination. Summary: B: Old fecal contamination - Incorrect because the indicators suggest recent contamination. C: Insufficient intensity of soil humification - Incorrect as it is not related to the specific indicators mentioned in the question. D: Constant entry of organic protein contaminations - Incorrect as the indicators point towards fecal contamination, not protein