ATI RN
Pharmacology Across the Lifespan ATI Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient comes to your clinic having taken an undetermined amount of heroin. The drug of choice for heroin overdose is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Naloxone (Narcan). Naloxone is an opioid receptor antagonist that rapidly reverses the effects of opioid overdose, such as heroin. It competes with opioids for receptor sites in the brain, blocking their effects and reversing respiratory depression, a common complication of opioid overdose. Naltrexone (A) is not used in acute overdose situations. Methadone (B) is a long-acting opioid agonist used for opioid dependence but not for acute overdose. Clonidine (D) is used to manage withdrawal symptoms but does not directly reverse opioid overdose effects. Naloxone is the drug of choice for opioid overdose due to its rapid and effective reversal of opioid effects.
Question 2 of 5
The recommended range for maintaining serum theophylline levels is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D (10 to 20 ug/ml) for maintaining serum theophylline levels. This range is recommended for therapeutic efficacy with minimal side effects. Levels below 10 ug/ml may not be effective, while levels above 20 ug/ml can lead to toxicity. Choice A (20 to 25 ug/ml) and Choice B (30 to 40 ug/ml) are too high and could result in toxicity. Choice C (0.05 to 2 ug/ml) is too low for therapeutic effect. Therefore, maintaining theophylline levels within the range of 10 to 20 ug/ml is the ideal balance for effective treatment.
Question 3 of 5
A patient is taking Loracaserin (Belviq) for weight-loss. Which supplement taken by this patient would cause you to be alarmed?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: St. John's wort. St. John's wort is known to interact with many medications, including Loracaserin. It can decrease the effectiveness of Loracaserin, leading to reduced weight-loss benefits. Garlic (A), Ginseng (B), and Ginkgo biloba (D) do not have significant interactions with Loracaserin. Always consult a healthcare provider before taking any new supplements to prevent potential adverse effects.
Question 4 of 5
The reason that two MMR vaccines at least a month apart are recommended is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: The correct answer is A because it states that only 95% of patients are fully immunized for measles after the first vaccine, with 99% having immunity after two doses of MMR. Step 2: This indicates that a single dose may not provide full immunity, necessitating a second dose. Step 3: By providing two doses, the likelihood of achieving immunity in a higher percentage of patients increases. Step 4: This ensures a more thorough and effective immunization process. Summary: Choice A is correct because it emphasizes the importance of two doses for higher immunity rates. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the specific need for two MMR doses for optimal immunization effectiveness.
Question 5 of 5
Which mechanism of action or pharmacological action is best associated with sitagliptin (januvia) and saxagliptin (onglyza)?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Sitagliptin and saxagliptin are both DDP-4 inhibitors. 2. DDP-4 inhibitors work by blocking the enzyme DDP-4, which degrades incretin hormones. 3. Incretin hormones increase insulin release and decrease glucagon secretion. 4. This results in improved blood sugar control in patients with type 2 diabetes. Summary: A: Binds PPAR-Gamma - Incorrect, as sitagliptin and saxagliptin do not bind PPAR-Gamma. B: Decreases insulin resistance - Incorrect, as DDP-4 inhibitors primarily work on incretin hormones. C: Increases insulin sensitivity - Incorrect, as the main action of DDP-4 inhibitors is through incretin hormones, not directly on insulin sensitivity.