A patient comes into the emergency department after an accident at work. He had not been wearing safety glasses, and a machine had blown dust into his eyes. The nurse examines his corneas by shining a light from the side across the cornea. What findings would suggest that he has suffered corneal abrasion?

Questions 45

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

health assessment practice questions Questions

Question 1 of 9

A patient comes into the emergency department after an accident at work. He had not been wearing safety glasses, and a machine had blown dust into his eyes. The nurse examines his corneas by shining a light from the side across the cornea. What findings would suggest that he has suffered corneal abrasion?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A shattered look to the light rays reflecting off the cornea indicates corneal abrasion. When the cornea is scratched or abraded, light rays reflecting off it appear shattered due to irregularities on the corneal surface. This is a classic sign of corneal abrasion. A: Smooth and clear corneas (incorrect) - This would not indicate corneal abrasion as abrasions cause irregularities on the corneal surface. B: Opacity of the lens behind the cornea (incorrect) - This suggests a different issue related to the lens, not corneal abrasion. C: Bleeding from the areas across the cornea (incorrect) - This suggests a more severe injury like a corneal laceration, not a simple abrasion. In summary, choice D is correct as the shattered look of light rays is a characteristic finding in corneal abrasion, while the other choices do not

Question 2 of 9

A pregnant woman states that she is concerned about her gums because she has noticed they are swollen and have started bleeding. What would be an appropriate response by the nurse?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step 1: Swollen and bleeding gums during pregnancy can be a sign of gingivitis or pregnancy gingivitis. Step 2: Dental check-ups during pregnancy are important to prevent potential complications. Step 3: Referring the woman to a dentist ensures proper evaluation and treatment. Step 4: Dental care is safe during pregnancy, so timely intervention is crucial. Step 5: Option C is correct as it addresses the concern with a proactive approach.

Question 3 of 9

A 31-year-old patient tells the nurse that he is experiencing a progressive loss of hearing. He says that it does seem to help when people speak more loudly or if he turns up the volume. The most likely cause of his hearing loss is:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: otosclerosis. Otosclerosis is a condition where abnormal bone growth in the middle ear causes hearing loss. In this case, the patient's symptoms of progressive hearing loss improving with louder sounds suggest conductive hearing loss, which is commonly seen in otosclerosis. Other choices are incorrect because presbycusis is age-related hearing loss, trauma to the bones would typically result in sudden hearing loss, and frequent ear infections are more likely to cause temporary hearing loss rather than progressive loss.

Question 4 of 9

A mother brings her child in to the clinic for scalp and hair examination. She says that the child has developed irregularly shaped patches on her head with broken-off, stublike hair, and she is worried that this could be some form of premature baldness. She tells the nurse that the child's hair is always kept very short. The nurse reassures her by telling her that it is:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: trichotillomania, which may be caused by her child habitually twirling her hair in an absent-minded way. Trichotillomania is a psychological disorder where individuals have an irresistible urge to pull out their hair. In this case, the broken-off, stublike hair and irregularly shaped patches on the child's head are indicative of hair pulling rather than a medical condition like folliculitis (choice A), traumatic alopecia (choice B), or tinea capitis (choice C). The child's hair being kept very short does not align with the characteristic of these conditions, making trichotillomania the most likely explanation.

Question 5 of 9

A physician tells the nurse that a patient's vertebra prominens is tender and asks the nurse to reevaluate the area in 1 hour. The area of the body the nurse will assess will be:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: at the level of the C7 vertebra. The vertebra prominens refers to the spinous process of the C7 vertebra, which is the most prominent bony landmark at the base of the neck. Assessing this area allows the nurse to accurately locate and evaluate tenderness reported by the physician. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not correspond to the location of the vertebra prominens. Option A is too high, above the diaphragm; option B is too low, lateral to the knee cap; and option D is too low, at the level of the T11 vertebra.

Question 6 of 9

The nurse is performing an assessment on a 21-year-old patient and notes that his nasal mucosa appears pale, grey, and swollen. What would be the most appropriate question to ask the patient?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Are you aware of having any allergies?" This question is appropriate because the patient's symptoms of pale, grey, and swollen nasal mucosa suggest an allergic reaction. By asking about allergies, the nurse can gather important information to determine the cause of the symptoms. B: "Do you have an elevated temperature?" - This question is not directly related to the patient's nasal symptoms and does not address the likely allergic reaction. C: "Have you had any symptoms of a cold?" - While cold symptoms may present similarly to allergies, the patient's specific symptoms of pale, grey, and swollen nasal mucosa are more indicative of an allergic reaction. D: "Have you been having frequent nosebleeds?" - This question does not directly address the patient's current symptoms and is not likely related to the nasal mucosa appearance described.

Question 7 of 9

The nurse is obtaining history for a 3-month-old infant. During the interview, the mother states,"I think she is getting her first tooth because she has started drooling a lot." The nurse's best response would be:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because drooling is a common sign of teething in infants. The nurse's response should validate the mother's observation to build trust and rapport. Choice B is incorrect because teething can start as early as 3 months. Choice C is incorrect as drooling is a normal developmental milestone in infants. Choice D is incorrect as infants do not consciously control saliva production.

Question 8 of 9

A mother who has brought her newborn infant for assessment tells the nurse that she has noticed that whenever her newborn's head is turned to the right side, the baby straightens out the arm and leg on the same side and flexes the opposite arm and leg. After confirming this on examination, the nurse would tell the mother that this is:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step 1: The described behavior is known as the asymmetric tonic neck reflex (ATNR), a normal infantile reflex. Step 2: The ATNR typically emerges around birth and should disappear between 3 and 4 months of age. Step 3: The reflex helps with hand-eye coordination and development of body awareness. Step 4: Choice A is incorrect as the behavior is not abnormal or related to atonic neck reflex. Step 5: Choice B is incorrect as the reflex typically disappears by 3-4 months, not by the first year of life. Step 6: Choice D is incorrect as it describes a different pattern of movement than what is observed in the ATNR. Summary: The correct answer is C because the behavior described is a normal infantile reflex that typically disappears between 3-4 months of age, aiding in the baby's development.

Question 9 of 9

During examination of a 4-year-old Aboriginal child, the nurse notices that her uvula is partially split. Which of the following statements about this condition is accurate?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: This is a bifid uvula, which is a common occurrence in some Aboriginal groups. 1. A bifid uvula is a condition where the uvula is split or divided, which is a common variation seen in some Aboriginal populations. 2. Cleft palate is a different condition involving a gap in the roof of the mouth, not specifically related to Aboriginal people. 3. Uvular injury is not a common cause of a split uvula in children, so reporting to authorities is unnecessary. 4. Torus palatinus is a bony growth on the roof of the mouth and not related to a split uvula or specific to Aboriginal populations.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days