ATI RN
health assessment practice questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient comes into the emergency department after an accident at work. He had not been wearing safety glasses, and a machine had blown dust into his eyes. The nurse examines his corneas by shining a light from the side across the cornea. What findings would suggest that he has suffered corneal abrasion?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A shattered look to the light rays reflecting off the cornea indicates corneal abrasion. When the cornea is scratched or abraded, light rays reflecting off it appear shattered due to irregularities on the corneal surface. This is a classic sign of corneal abrasion. A: Smooth and clear corneas (incorrect) - This would not indicate corneal abrasion as abrasions cause irregularities on the corneal surface. B: Opacity of the lens behind the cornea (incorrect) - This suggests a different issue related to the lens, not corneal abrasion. C: Bleeding from the areas across the cornea (incorrect) - This suggests a more severe injury like a corneal laceration, not a simple abrasion. In summary, choice D is correct as the shattered look of light rays is a characteristic finding in corneal abrasion, while the other choices do not
Question 2 of 9
The nurse would plan to use the Nipissing District Developmental Screen with a child who is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A (3 years old) because the Nipissing District Developmental Screen is specifically designed for children aged 1 month to 6 years to assess their developmental milestones. It focuses on various areas of development appropriate for this age group, such as motor skills, language, social interaction, and cognitive abilities. Using this tool with a 3-year-old child allows for early identification of potential developmental delays or concerns. Incorrect choices: B (16 years old) - The Nipissing District Developmental Screen is not intended for children above 6 years old. C (8 years old with a developmental delay) - The tool is primarily for early screening, not for children already identified with developmental delays. D (Having difficulty with gross motor skills) - While this child may benefit from assessment, the Nipissing Screen is a comprehensive tool for overall development, not just specific skill deficits.
Question 3 of 9
Which areas are most important to address for a client in Buck's traction?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Nutrition is important for healing and energy. Step 2: Elimination is crucial for bowel and bladder function. Step 3: Comfort ensures the client's well-being. Step 4: Safety prevents complications. Step 5: ROM exercises can prevent muscle atrophy. Step 6: Transportation and isotonic exercises are not immediate priorities.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is assessing a patient with a history of diabetes and hypertension. The nurse should monitor for which of the following complications?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chronic kidney disease (CKD). Patients with diabetes and hypertension are at increased risk for developing CKD due to the damaging effects of high blood sugar and elevated blood pressure on the kidneys. The nurse should monitor for signs and symptoms of kidney dysfunction such as proteinuria, elevated creatinine levels, and decreased glomerular filtration rate. B: Chronic pain is not directly related to the patient's history of diabetes and hypertension. While the patient may experience pain as a result of complications from these conditions, it is not the primary complication to monitor for in this case. C: Hypotension, or low blood pressure, is not a common complication associated with diabetes and hypertension. These conditions typically lead to high blood pressure rather than low blood pressure. D: Sepsis is a serious infection that can occur in any patient, but it is not a direct complication specifically related to diabetes and hypertension. Monitoring for sepsis would be important in a broader context but is not
Question 5 of 9
A woman has come to the clinic to seek help for a substance use problem. She admits to using cocaine just before coming to the clinic. Which of the following describes what the nurse may find when examining this woman?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Cocaine is a stimulant drug that typically leads to symptoms such as dilated pupils, pacing, and psychomotor agitation. Dilated pupils occur due to increased catecholamines. Pacing and psychomotor agitation are common behaviors associated with cocaine use. Unsteady gait and aggressiveness (Option B) are more characteristic of alcohol intoxication. Pupil constriction, lethargy, apathy, and dysphoria (Option C) are typical symptoms of opioid use. Constricted pupils, euphoria, and decreased temperature (Option D) are more indicative of opioid use as well.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following is most likely to increase the risk of sexually transmitted diseases (STDs)?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because all choices (A, B, and C) can increase the risk of STDs. Alcohol use can impair judgment leading to risky sexual behavior. Certain sexual practices (such as unprotected sex or having multiple partners) can directly increase the risk of STD transmission. Oral contraception does not protect against STDs, so individuals relying solely on it may still be at risk. Therefore, all of the above factors can contribute to an increased risk of contracting STDs.
Question 7 of 9
A patient's vision is recorded as 20/80 in each eye. The nurse recognizes that this finding indicates:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: poor vision. In the 20/80 visual acuity notation, 20 represents the test distance in feet, and 80 represents the line on the eye chart that the patient can read. Therefore, a person with 20/80 vision can only see at 20 feet what a person with normal vision can see at 80 feet. This indicates poor vision as the patient's visual acuity is significantly below normal. Summary: - Choice B (acute vision) is incorrect as 20/80 vision indicates poor vision, not exceptional sharpness. - Choice C (normal vision) is incorrect as 20/80 vision is below normal range. - Choice D (presbyopia) is incorrect as presbyopia is a condition related to aging and difficulty focusing on close objects, not specifically indicated by 20/80 vision.
Question 8 of 9
During an examination, the nurse finds that a patient's left temporal artery is more tortuous and feels hardened and tender compared with the right temporal artery. What condition does the nurse suspect?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Temporal arteritis. Temporal arteritis is characterized by inflammation of the temporal arteries, leading to symptoms such as tenderness, hardness, and tortuosity. The left temporal artery being more affected than the right is a common presentation. Crepitation (choice A) refers to a crackling sound or sensation, typically associated with bone or joint abnormalities, not arterial inflammation. Mastoiditis (choice B) is an infection of the mastoid bone behind the ear, not related to temporal arteries. Bell's palsy (choice D) is a condition affecting facial nerves, not arteries.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following assessment findings is most consistent with clubbing of the fingernails?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Clubbing of the fingernails is characterized by an increased angle between the nail base and the nail plate (usually 180 degrees or greater) and a spongy texture at the nail base. This is due to underlying tissue changes associated with conditions like lung disease. Choice D is correct as it accurately describes the characteristic findings of clubbing. Choices A, B, and C do not align with clubbing features. Choice A describes tenderness and firmness, not sponginess and increased angle. Choice B mentions a convex profile and ridges, which are not specific to clubbing. Choice C includes an angle of 150 degrees, which is less than the typical angle seen in clubbing.