ATI RN
nclex physical and health assessment questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient comes into the clinic complaining of facial pain, fever, and malaise. On examination, the nurse notes swollen turbinates and a purulent discharge from the nose. The patient also complains of a dull, throbbing pain in his cheeks and teeth on the right side and pain when the nurse palpates the areas. The nurse recognizes that this patient has:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: The patient's symptoms of facial pain, fever, malaise, swollen turbinates, purulent nasal discharge, pain in cheeks and teeth, and pain upon palpation all point towards maxillary sinusitis. The maxillary sinuses are located in the cheek area, and infection can lead to the described symptoms. Frontal sinusitis typically presents with forehead pain, and nasal polyps would not cause the specific symptoms mentioned. Posterior epistaxis involves bleeding from the back of the nose and is not consistent with the patient's symptoms. Therefore, the correct answer is C: maxillary sinusitis.
Question 2 of 9
During an assessment of an 80-year-old patient, the nurse would expect to find:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: decreased ability to identify odors. As people age, their sense of smell tends to decline due to changes in the olfactory system. This is a common phenomenon in older adults and can impact their overall quality of life. The other choices are incorrect because hypertrophy of the gums (A) is not a typical finding in older adults, increased production of saliva (B) is not directly related to aging, and finer and less prominent nasal hair (D) is not a definitive characteristic of older age.
Question 3 of 9
While performing a voice test to assess hearing in a patient, which of the following would the nurse do?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B Rationale: 1. Whispering two-syllable words ensures a low volume, requiring the patient to focus on clarity. 2. Asking the patient to repeat tests their ability to hear and understand the whispered words accurately. 3. Whispering helps eliminate the influence of lip-reading, ensuring accurate assessment. Summary: A: Shielding the lips while speaking would hinder the patient's ability to hear clearly. C: Placing a finger in the ear would not be appropriate as it could affect the accuracy of the test. D: Standing at a specific distance does not ensure accurate assessment of hearing ability.
Question 4 of 9
A patient's medical record describes a lesion that is confluent in nature. On examination, the nurse would expect to find:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: lesions that run together. Confluent lesions refer to merging or blending of individual lesions to form a larger lesion. This indicates a continuous area of involvement on the skin. Choices B, C, and D do not accurately describe confluent lesions as they refer to different patterns of lesion distribution such as annular, linear, or grouped. The key to identifying confluent lesions is the concept of merging or running together, which is best represented by choice A.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following is the best way to palpate the lymph nodes in the neck?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because using the index and middle fingers to palpate with gentle pressure in a rotating pattern allows for a thorough examination of the lymph nodes without causing discomfort or injury. This method helps to assess the size, shape, consistency, and tenderness of the nodes accurately. It also enables the examiner to detect any abnormalities such as enlargement or tenderness. A is incorrect as using strong pressure can be painful and lead to inaccurate assessment. B is incorrect as strong pressure can be harmful and may not provide the necessary sensitivity to detect abnormalities. C is incorrect as pinching each node can be uncomfortable and may not allow for a systematic examination of the lymph nodes.
Question 6 of 9
A patient comes to the clinic complaining of neck and shoulder pain and is unable to turn her head. The nurse suspects damage to CN _____ and starts the examination by:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (XI; asking the patient to shrug her shoulders against resistance). This is the correct choice because the nurse suspects damage to the spinal accessory nerve (CN XI), which innervates the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles. Asking the patient to shrug her shoulders against resistance tests the function of the trapezius muscle, which is innervated by CN XI. This examination helps to assess the integrity of the nerve and its ability to innervate the muscle. Palpating the anterior and posterior triangles (choice A) is not specific to CN XI function. Percussing the sternomastoid and submandibular neck muscles (choice C) is related to CN XII, not CN XI. Assessing for a positive Romberg's sign (choice D) is not relevant to testing the function of CN XI.
Question 7 of 9
An ophthalmic examination reveals papilledema. The nurse is aware that this finding indicates:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: increased intracranial pressure. Papilledema is swelling of the optic disc due to increased pressure in the brain. It is a sign of serious conditions like brain tumors, head trauma, or hydrocephalus. The other choices are incorrect because retinal detachment presents with visual disturbances and floaters (A), diabetic retinopathy with retinal damage due to diabetes (B), and acute-angle glaucoma with sudden eye pain and blurred vision (C). Papilledema specifically indicates increased intracranial pressure, making choice D the correct answer.
Question 8 of 9
When performing the corneal light reflex assessment, the nurse notes that the light is reflected at the 2 o'clock position in each eye. The nurse would:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: document this as an asymmetrical light reflex. This finding indicates an asymmetry in the corneal light reflex, suggesting a possible deviation in eye alignment or muscle weakness. It is essential to document this observation for further evaluation and monitoring. Choice A is incorrect as asymmetry in the light reflex is not a normal finding. Referring for further evaluation (Choice B) would be appropriate if the asymmetry persists or is associated with other concerning symptoms. Performing the confrontation test (Choice D) is not necessary for this specific assessment and finding.
Question 9 of 9
A man comes to the emergency department after he had participated in a boxing match, and his left eye is swollen almost shut. He has bruises on his face and neck. He says he is worried because he"can't see well" from his left eye. The physician suspects retinal damage. Signs of retinal detachment include:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: shadow or diminished vision in one quadrant or one half of the visual field. Retinal detachment can cause a shadow or reduced vision specifically in one quadrant or one half of the visual field due to the detachment of the sensory retina from the underlying retinal pigment epithelium. This occurs because the detached retina disrupts the normal function of the photoreceptor cells leading to visual disturbances in that specific area. A: Loss of central vision is not a typical sign of retinal detachment, as it usually affects peripheral vision initially. C: Loss of peripheral vision can occur in retinal detachment, but it is not a defining characteristic as the detachment typically affects a specific quadrant or half of the visual field. D: Sudden loss of pupillary constriction and accommodation is not directly related to retinal detachment but may be seen in other eye conditions like acute angle-closure glaucoma.