ATI RN
Cardiovascular Drugs Quiz Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient being treated for depression has been taking 300 mg amitriptyline (Elavil) daily for nearly a year. She calls her case manager at the mental health clinic, stating she stopped taking her antidepressant 2 days ago and has developed something like the “flu,” with cold sweats, nausea, a rapid heartbeat, terrible nightmares when she sleeps, but no other symptoms. How should the nurse respond?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Explain it may be withdrawal; tell her to take one Elavil and contact her doctor. This response is appropriate because the patient is experiencing symptoms consistent with abrupt discontinuation of amitriptyline, known as withdrawal syndrome. By advising her to take one dose of Elavil, it helps to alleviate the withdrawal symptoms and prevent further complications. Instructing her to contact her doctor ensures proper follow-up and monitoring. Choice A is incorrect because going to the emergency department may not be necessary for this situation. Choice B is incorrect as it does not address the underlying issue of withdrawal from the antidepressant. Choice D is incorrect as it provides a potentially harmful tapering schedule that may not adequately manage withdrawal symptoms.
Question 2 of 5
The laboratory report for a patient taking clozapine (Clozaril) shows a white blood cell count of 3000 mm3. Select the nurse’s best action.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Report these results to the health care provider immediately. A low white blood cell count (3000 mm3) in a patient taking clozapine (Clozaril) could indicate a potentially serious condition called agranulocytosis, which is a severe decrease in white blood cells. This condition can increase the risk of infection and is a known side effect of clozapine. Reporting these results to the health care provider immediately is crucial for prompt evaluation and appropriate management, such as discontinuing the medication or adjusting the dosage. Summary of incorrect choices: B: Giving the next dose as prescribed is risky without addressing the low white blood cell count first. C: Giving aspirin and forcing fluids is unrelated to the low white blood cell count and could worsen the situation. D: Repeating the laboratory test may delay necessary intervention for the potentially serious condition of agranulocytosis.
Question 3 of 5
A patient tells a nurse, “My doctor thinks my problem may lie with the neurotransmitters in my brain. Does that mean I have a serious problem?” How should the nurse reply to the patient’s question about the seriousness of the problem?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it acknowledges the patient's concern and invites further discussion to clarify the doctor's explanation. By exploring what the doctor has told the patient, the nurse can provide accurate information and address any misconceptions, helping the patient understand the situation better. Choice B jumps to conclusions about mental disorders without assessing the patient's actual situation. Choice C oversimplifies the treatment of neurotransmitter issues, which may vary in severity. Choice D assumes the patient's perception without addressing the underlying concerns. Overall, choice A promotes open communication and patient-centered care.
Question 4 of 5
When assessing patients in the preoperative area, the nurse knows that which patient is at a higher risk for an altered response to anesthesia?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, the 78-year-old patient who is to have gallbladder removal. Older adults have a higher risk of altered response to anesthesia due to age-related changes in organ function, decreased metabolism, and increased sensitivity to medications. The other choices are less likely to have altered responses: A is young and healthy, B has stopped smoking which can reduce anesthesia risks, and C is a young patient with a routine procedure. Overall, age and complexity of the surgical procedure are key factors in determining the risk of altered response to anesthesia.
Question 5 of 5
A patient with primary hypertension is prescribed drug therapy for the first time. The patient asks how long drug therapy will be needed. Which answer by the nurse is the correct response?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Correct Answer: D Rationale: 1. Primary hypertension is a chronic condition. 2. Drug therapy for primary hypertension aims to control blood pressure long-term. 3. Lifestyle changes may help but often medication is needed. 4. Discontinuing medication can lead to uncontrolled hypertension. 5. Therefore, therapy for high blood pressure is usually lifelong. Summary: A: Incorrect, as 3 months is too short for chronic hypertension management. B: Incorrect, as a year may not be sufficient for long-term control. C: Incorrect, as symptom disappearance doesn't indicate resolved hypertension. D: Correct, as lifelong therapy is often necessary for primary hypertension.