ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Practice Exam B Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient being seen for skin concerns asks, 'What do keratolytic drugs remove?' What is the nurse’s best response?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B) A horny layer of epidermis. Keratolytic drugs are used to treat various skin conditions by promoting the shedding of the outer layer of the skin, also known as the epidermis. This process helps to remove dead skin cells, unclog pores, and improve skin texture and appearance. Option A) A horny layer of dermis is incorrect because the dermis is the layer of skin beneath the epidermis and is not affected by keratolytic drugs. Option C) Erythematous lesions is incorrect because keratolytic drugs do not specifically target or remove red, inflamed skin lesions. Option D) Hair follicles is incorrect because keratolytic drugs do not have a direct effect on hair follicles; their primary action is on the outer layer of the skin. Educationally, understanding the mechanism of action of keratolytic drugs is essential for nurses to provide effective patient education on how to use these medications, their expected outcomes, and potential side effects. This knowledge empowers nurses to educate patients on proper skin care practices and promote optimal treatment outcomes.
Question 2 of 5
Chris asks the nurse whether all donor blood products are cross-matched with the recipient to prevent a transfusion reaction. Which of the following always require cross-matching?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Packed red blood cells (PRBCs) always require cross-matching to ensure compatibility between the donor and recipient blood types. Cross-matching involves testing the recipient's serum against the donor's red cells to detect antibodies that could cause a transfusion reaction. Granulocytes, platelets, and plasma do not require cross-matching in the same way, although they may undergo other compatibility tests. PRBCs are the most critical to match correctly due to the risk of hemolytic reactions, which can be life-threatening.
Question 3 of 5
It is rational and advised therapeutic practice to commence treatment with the following drug using a loading dose if a rapid onset of action is required:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A loading dose achieves therapeutic levels quickly for drugs with long half-lives or urgent needs. Clozapine's slow titration avoids agranulocytosis, not rapid loading. Zolmitriptan, for acute migraine, acts fast without loading due to short half-life. Amiodarone, with a half-life of weeks, uses loading doses (e.g., 800-1600 mg/day) to rapidly control arrhythmias, rational for urgent onset. Levodopa's short half-life and titration in Parkinson's don't require loading. Doxazosin, for hypertension, starts low to avoid first-dose hypotension. Amiodarone's pharmacokinetics and arrhythmia urgency make loading advised, balancing efficacy and toxicity risks.
Question 4 of 5
Regarding diazepam:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Diazepam, a benzodiazepine, has active metabolites (e.g., desmethyldiazepam) with longer half-lives, contributing to its effects, so that's false. Activated charcoal is effective in overdose by adsorbing diazepam, reducing absorption, a true statement and standard intervention. It undergoes minimal, not extensive, enterohepatic recirculation, making that false. It's a GABA agonist, enhancing chloride influx via benzodiazepine receptors, not an antagonist, so that's incorrect. It also inhibits spinal reflexes, aiding muscle relaxation. The overdose utility of charcoal highlights its role in emergency management, binding unabsorbed drug in the gut, a key pharmacokinetic intervention distinct from flumazenil reversal.
Question 5 of 5
An 18-year-old male is being evaluated for hypogonadism. The nurse would evaluate which physical findings as supporting that tentative diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Hypogonadism in males, marked by low testosterone, delays secondary sexual characteristics, like facial hair, which remains minimal, soft, and light due to insufficient androgen stimulation of follicles. Absent pubic hair aligns with this, reflecting poor pubertal development from gonadal dysfunction. Decreased subcutaneous fat is less typical-hypogonadism often increases fat due to estrogen dominance from low testosterone. Small testicles directly indicate testicular failure, a hallmark of primary hypogonadism, reducing hormone and sperm output. Minimal facial hair is a visible, assessable sign tied to androgen deficiency, distinguishing it from normal variation, and supports the diagnosis alongside other findings like testicular size, reflecting the condition's impact on masculinization and reproductive maturity.