ATI RN
ATI RN Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient being seen for skin concerns asks, 'What do keratolytic drugs remove?' What is the nurse’s best response?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Keratolytic drugs, such as salicylic acid, work by softening and removing the horny layer of the epidermis, which consists of dead skin cells. This helps treat conditions like psoriasis, warts, and calluses. They do not target the dermis (A), erythematous lesions (C), or hair follicles (D).
Question 2 of 5
The client has osteomalacia, and the physician has ordered a treatment to restore calcium balance. What will the nurse plan to administer to the client?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Osteomalacia softens bones-vitamin D with calcium boosts absorption, correcting deficiency, per pathophysiology. Veggies and milk help but lack D's focus. Potassium is unrelated-D drives calcium use. This duo restores balance, per treatment.
Question 3 of 5
It is rational and advised therapeutic practice to commence treatment with the following drug using a loading dose if a rapid onset of action is required:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A loading dose achieves therapeutic levels quickly for drugs with long half-lives or urgent needs. Clozapine's slow titration avoids agranulocytosis, not rapid loading. Zolmitriptan, for acute migraine, acts fast without loading due to short half-life. Amiodarone, with a half-life of weeks, uses loading doses (e.g., 800-1600 mg/day) to rapidly control arrhythmias, rational for urgent onset. Levodopa's short half-life and titration in Parkinson's don't require loading. Doxazosin, for hypertension, starts low to avoid first-dose hypotension. Amiodarone's pharmacokinetics and arrhythmia urgency make loading advised, balancing efficacy and toxicity risks.
Question 4 of 5
The client receives diphenhydramine (Benadryl) to control allergic symptoms. Which common symptom does the nurse teach the client to report to the physician?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Diphenhydramine's anticholinergic effects include urinary hesitancy , a serious symptom risking retention, needing physician reporting. Sedation is expected. Diarrhea and vomiting aren't typical. D prioritizes significant complications, making it the key symptom.
Question 5 of 5
Chris asks the nurse whether all donor blood products are cross-matched with the recipient to prevent a transfusion reaction. Which of the following always require cross-matching?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Packed red blood cells (PRBCs) always require cross-matching to ensure compatibility between the donor and recipient blood types. Cross-matching involves testing the recipient's serum against the donor's red cells to detect antibodies that could cause a transfusion reaction. Granulocytes, platelets, and plasma do not require cross-matching in the same way, although they may undergo other compatibility tests. PRBCs are the most critical to match correctly due to the risk of hemolytic reactions, which can be life-threatening.