ATI RN
Kaplan and Sadocks Synopsis of Psychiatry Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient asks, “What advantage does a durable power of attorney for health care have over a living will?” The nurse should reply, A durable power of attorney for health care:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A: Gives your agent authority to make decisions during any illness if you are incapacitated. Rationale: 1. A durable power of attorney for health care allows you to appoint a trusted individual (agent) to make medical decisions on your behalf if you are unable to do so. 2. This authority is not limited to a specific type of illness or condition, ensuring your agent can make decisions for any illness that renders you incapacitated. 3. This flexibility ensures that your wishes are carried out regardless of the circumstances. Summary of Other Choices: B: Incorrect - A durable power of attorney can be given to any trusted individual, not just a relative. C: Incorrect - A durable power of attorney can be used in any situation where you are unable to make decisions, not just in terminal illness. D: Incorrect - A durable power of attorney can be implemented immediately upon signing, providing timely decision-making support.
Question 2 of 9
The Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA) provides standards of care for which of the following?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Older adults. OBRA primarily focuses on setting standards of care for older adults in long-term care facilities, ensuring their safety and well-being. This is because older adults are a vulnerable population requiring specialized care and attention. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because OBRA does not specifically address very young individuals, those with intellectual communication difficulties, or individuals without medical insurance. The Act mainly pertains to the care and rights of older adults in long-term care settings.
Question 3 of 9
Which intervention best reflects the nursing role regarding effective implementation of behavioral therapy goals?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because evaluating patient behaviors to reward economic tokens appropriately is a key aspect of behavioral therapy. By assessing and reinforcing positive behaviors with rewards, nurses can encourage patients to continue working towards their therapy goals. Administering medications accurately (choice A) is important but not directly related to behavioral therapy goals. Interacting effectively with the health care team (choice B) is important for overall patient care but does not specifically address behavioral therapy. Being aware of therapeutic modalities (choice C) is important but does not directly contribute to implementing behavioral therapy goals like choice D does.
Question 4 of 9
About an hour after the patient has ECT, he complains of having a headache. The nurse should:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer an as needed (prn) dose of acetaminophen. After ECT, it is common for patients to experience headaches as a side effect. Administering acetaminophen will help alleviate the headache and provide relief for the patient. It is important to address the patient's discomfort promptly and effectively. Choice A is incorrect because headaches after ECT are a common side effect and do not typically require immediate physician notification. Choice C is incorrect as progressive relaxation may not address the immediate headache symptoms. Choice D is also incorrect as physical activities may exacerbate the headache rather than provide relief. Administering acetaminophen is the most appropriate and efficient intervention in this situation.
Question 5 of 9
Which statement made by a patient just prior to being transported for a scheduled ECT treatment would result in cancellation of the treatment?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because asking about memory loss indicates a lack of informed consent and understanding of ECT procedure. Memory loss is a common side effect of ECT, and a patient should be well-informed about it before treatment. Choices B, C, and D do not raise concerns about the patient's understanding or readiness for ECT, making them incorrect. Choice B asks about dietary concerns, which do not directly impact the treatment. Choice C shows the patient's hope for improvement, which is a positive attitude. Choice D indicates the patient's desire for more information, which is a sign of engagement in their care.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following meets the DSM-IV-TR criteria for moderate mental retardation?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the DSM-IV-TR criteria for moderate mental retardation includes an IQ range of 35-49, which typically corresponds to functioning at around the level of a 6 to 9-year-old. Choice D best fits this criteria as the individual has advanced to the sixth grade level academically, indicating a level of functioning consistent with moderate mental retardation. Choices A, B, and C do not meet the criteria as they suggest a higher level of functioning and independence than what is typically associated with moderate mental retardation.
Question 7 of 9
During the first family therapy session, the mother of a child being treated for truancy and emotional outbursts asks the nurse, “Why are you bothering to ask the rest of us questions? My son is the one with the problems.” The best response for the nurse would be:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because involving the entire family in therapy sessions allows for a more comprehensive understanding of the family dynamics and how they may be contributing to the child's issues. By including all family members, the nurse can gather diverse perspectives and insights that can inform the treatment plan. This approach also promotes family unity and collaboration in addressing the child's problems. Option B is not the best response as it lacks a clear rationale for involving the whole family. Option C, while partially true, does not directly address the question raised by the mother. Option D emphasizes the importance of every family member's perceptions but does not specifically address the benefits of involving the entire family in therapy sessions.
Question 8 of 9
A grief support group is held at the local community center to assist persons who are dealing with issues of loss. Which remark by one of the members would the nurse interpret as indicating unresolved feelings of guilt?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the statement indicates feelings of guilt about not getting help sooner, suggesting the member may blame themselves for the loss. This remark reflects a sense of responsibility and regret, common in unresolved guilt. Choice A expresses acceptance, B reflects natural grief progression, and D highlights difficulty during specific times, not necessarily linked to guilt. By analyzing the content of each statement, the nurse can identify cues related to unresolved feelings of guilt.
Question 9 of 9
Which intervention would qualify as primary prevention of violent behaviors in children and adolescents?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because limiting exposure to violence on TV, video, and computer games falls under primary prevention by addressing risk factors before violent behaviors occur. This intervention helps reduce the likelihood of children and adolescents developing violent tendencies by minimizing their exposure to violent content that can influence their behavior. A: Forbidding the child to continue friendships with violent peers is more of a secondary prevention strategy targeting existing risk factors, not primary prevention. C: Seeking counseling for a child who has been experimenting with drugs is also a secondary prevention strategy focusing on addressing a specific risk factor, not primary prevention. D: Showing a unified approach to parenting when dealing with a violent child is a tertiary prevention strategy aimed at managing and reducing harm after the behavior has already occurred, not primary prevention.