ATI RN
Assessment of Genitourinary System Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient asks the nurse why kidney problems can
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: A. The correct answer is A because kidney problems can lead to decreased excretion of waste products like blood urea nitrogen (BUN), causing its levels to increase in the blood. This can result in gastrointestinal disturbances. B. Choice B is incorrect because kidney problems are more likely to cause hyperkalemia (high potassium levels) rather than hypokalemia (low potassium levels). C. Choice C is incomplete and does not provide a relevant explanation. D. Choice D is irrelevant as the proximity of the right kidney to other organs does not explain the relationship between kidney problems and BUN levels.
Question 2 of 5
When performing a genital assessment on a middle-aged man, the nurse notices multiple soft, moist, painless papules in the shape of cauliflower-like patches scattered across the shaft of the penis. These lesions are characteristic of:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Genital warts. Genital warts are caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV) and present as soft, moist, painless papules in a cauliflower-like appearance. This is a classic presentation of genital warts, which are a common sexually transmitted infection. It is important to identify and differentiate genital warts from other genital lesions for appropriate treatment and management. Carcinoma (choice A) typically presents as a solitary, indurated, and ulcerated lesion. Syphilitic chancres (choice B) are usually firm, painless ulcers. Genital herpes (choice C) presents as painful vesicles or ulcers. These characteristics do not match the description provided in the question, making choices A, B, and C incorrect.
Question 3 of 5
A 35 year old man heroin addict on methadone maintenance therapy for the * last one year , is positive for TB on Chest x-ray. He was started on standard quadri anti -TB drug. He is rushed to ER complaining of withdrawal symptoms. Which of the following anti-TB drugs is likely to cause this patient's withdrawal reaction?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: INH (Isoniazid). INH is known to interact with methadone, potentially leading to increased methadone metabolism and reduced methadone levels, causing withdrawal symptoms in a heroin addict on methadone maintenance therapy. Streptomycin (A), Rifampicin (B), and Pyrazinamide (D) are not associated with causing withdrawal symptoms in this scenario. Streptomycin can cause hearing loss and kidney damage, Rifampicin can cause liver toxicity and drug interactions, and Pyrazinamide can cause liver toxicity and joint pain.
Question 4 of 5
This class of drug exert its antimicrobial action by binding to 30S ribosomes * and inhibit bacterial protein synthesis, is the drug of choice for treating non- gonoccocal urethritis caused by Chlamydia and Ureaplasma, but should be avoided in patients with liver disease:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tetracyclines. Tetracyclines bind to the 30S ribosomal subunit and inhibit bacterial protein synthesis, making them effective against Chlamydia and Ureaplasma causing non-gonococcal urethritis. They should be avoided in patients with liver disease due to the potential for hepatotoxicity. A: Daptomycin is not the correct choice as it works by disrupting bacterial cell membrane function, not by binding to ribosomes. B: Carbapenems are broad-spectrum antibiotics that inhibit cell wall synthesis by binding to penicillin-binding proteins, not ribosomes. C: Cephalosporins are beta-lactam antibiotics that inhibit cell wall synthesis, not protein synthesis by binding to ribosomes. In summary, tetracyclines are the drug of choice for the given condition due to their mechanism of action on ribosomes, while the other choices are incorrect as they target different
Question 5 of 5
A 20 year old patient presented to the ER with headache, stiff neck and fever * for 3 days and is diagnosed with bacterial meningitis. Which one of the following antibiotics is the best choice to treat meningitis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cefotaxime. This third-generation cephalosporin is a preferred choice for treating bacterial meningitis due to its broad-spectrum coverage against common pathogens causing meningitis, including Streptococcus pneumoniae and Neisseria meningitidis. Cefuroxime (A) and Cephalexin (B) are not optimal choices as they have less activity against these pathogens. Cefdinir (D) is not a recommended treatment for bacterial meningitis and is not as effective as Cefotaxime in this scenario.