ATI RN
Pharmacology Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient asks the nurse for information about fat-soluble vitamins. What is the nurse's best response?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer to the question is option C) Fat-soluble vitamins are excreted slowly in urine. Fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, E, K) are stored in the body's fatty tissues and liver, which allows for a slower excretion rate compared to water-soluble vitamins. This slow excretion can lead to a higher risk of toxicity if fat-soluble vitamins are consumed in excess as they can build up in the body over time. Option A) Fat-soluble vitamins are not metabolized rapidly, as they are stored in the body for longer periods. Option B) Fat-soluble vitamins can be stored in the liver and fatty tissues, which is a characteristic feature of these vitamins. Option D) Fat-soluble vitamins can indeed be toxic if consumed in excessive amounts due to their ability to accumulate in the body. Educationally, understanding the differences between fat-soluble and water-soluble vitamins is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide accurate information to patients about dietary requirements, supplementation, and potential risks associated with vitamin intake. It is essential for nurses to be able to explain the characteristics of fat-soluble vitamins to patients to promote safe and effective vitamin consumption.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following is the priority nursing diagnosis for a client undergoing chemotherapy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Altered nutrition is often the priority nursing diagnosis for clients undergoing chemotherapy because the treatment can cause side effects such as nausea, vomiting, anorexia, and mucositis, leading to malnutrition and weight loss. Proper nutrition is essential for maintaining strength, supporting the immune system, and promoting recovery. While fear, anxiety, and decreased cardiac output are valid concerns, addressing nutritional deficits is critical to the client's overall well-being and ability to tolerate treatment.
Question 3 of 5
A 78-year-old man is admitted with deterioration of chronic heart failure. He is house-bound and has had three similar admissions in the past nine months. There is a history of ischaemic heart disease. His medication comprises furosemide, ramipril in full dose, valsartan, spironolactone, simvastatin and aspirin. He is dyspnoeic on minimal exertion, looks unwell, pulse 100/min regular, BP 90/70 mmHg, jugular venous pressure (JVP) is at 4 cm, gallop rhythm, chest clear, pretibial oedema. ECG shows sinus rhythm, an old inferior infarct and poor anterior R wave progression. Serum urea 15 mmol/L, creatinine 90 μmol/L, Na+ 140, K+ 4.6. Which of the following would be most appropriate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Chronic heart failure (CHF) decompensation needs optimization. Morphine relieves acute dyspnea but not chronic management here. Hydralazine/isosorbide reduces afterload/preload, useful in advanced CHF, but less immediate. Carvedilol, a beta-blocker, risks decompensation with low BP. Metolazone, a potent diuretic, aids fluid overload but overlaps with furosemide. Digoxin improves contractility and rate control in sinus rhythm CHF, reducing hospitalizations, most appropriate given his recurrent admissions and stable renal function. Its inotropic benefit stabilizes this patient, enhancing quality of life.
Question 4 of 5
Regarding glucocorticoids:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cortisol is indeed the primary human glucocorticoid, a true statement regulating metabolism and stress. Normal cortisol secretion is ~10-20 mg/day, not 100 mg, so that's false. ACTH suppression occurs rapidly (hours), true. Cortisol absence heightens catecholamine sensitivity, true, as in Addison's disease. Leukocyte/macrophage inhibition is a glucocorticoid action, not its absence. Cortisol's role as the major glucocorticoid underpins its therapeutic mimicry (e.g., hydrocortisone) in adrenal insufficiency.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is assessing a client and notes that he is receiving finasteride (Proscar). The client denies having any history of a significant prostate disorder. What is the best assessment question for the nurse to ask at this time?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Finasteride, a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor, is used as Proscar for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) and as Propecia for male pattern baldness, reducing dihydrotestosterone to promote hair growth. Without prostate issues, baldness is a likely reason for its use. Erectile dysfunction isn't treated by finasteride-it may cause it-making that irrelevant. Stomach ulcers and hypertension aren't linked to finasteride's androgen-targeted action. Asking about baldness probes a condition tied to its alternative use, clarifying the prescription's purpose and guiding the nurse's understanding of the client's therapy.