ATI RN
Health Assessment Neurological System Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient arrives in the ER with blurred and double vision, muscle weakness, and intolerance of temperature changes. The physician suspects multiple sclerosis. What test would you expect the physician to do in order to confirm his or her suspicions?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B) MRI with gadolinium showing demyelination of nerve fibers. Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the central nervous system, leading to inflammation and damage to the myelin sheath surrounding nerve fibers. An MRI with gadolinium is a common diagnostic test for MS as it can visualize areas of demyelination and inflammation in the brain and spinal cord, which are characteristic of the disease. Option A) CBC with a very low WBC count is incorrect because MS does not typically present with abnormalities in white blood cell counts. Option C) Endocrine function study with a low growth hormone and high T3 and T4 is incorrect as these abnormalities are not associated with MS. Option D) Fasting glucose test with a result over 300 mg/dL is incorrect as it is indicative of diabetes mellitus, not multiple sclerosis. In an educational context, understanding the diagnostic process for neurological conditions like multiple sclerosis is crucial for healthcare professionals. By knowing the appropriate tests and their significance, healthcare providers can ensure timely and accurate diagnosis, leading to better patient outcomes. MRI with gadolinium remains a cornerstone in diagnosing MS due to its ability to visualize the structural changes in the central nervous system associated with the disease.
Question 2 of 5
Why should the nurse wake up a client, who is to undergo an EEG, at midnight?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In preparing a client for an EEG, it is essential for the nurse to wake the client up at midnight to help them fall asleep naturally during the test. This is the correct answer because sleep deprivation can actually affect the results of the EEG, as it may lead to the client falling asleep during the test, resulting in inaccurate readings. By waking the client up at midnight, it helps induce natural tiredness, making it easier for the client to fall asleep during the EEG. Option A is incorrect because excess sleep does not necessarily make a person lazy or nervous for the EEG. Option B is incorrect as regulating breathing patterns is not the primary reason for waking the client up at midnight. Option D is also incorrect because waking up at midnight is not specifically aimed at reducing the chances of getting a headache when electrodes are fixed to the scalp. From an educational perspective, understanding the importance of proper sleep hygiene and its impact on diagnostic tests like EEGs is crucial for nurses. By ensuring that clients are well-rested and can fall asleep naturally during the procedure, nurses can contribute to more accurate and reliable test results, ultimately leading to better patient care and outcomes.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse in the postoperative unit prepares to receive a client after a balloon angioplasty of the carotid artery. Which of the following items should the nurse keep at the bedside for such a client in the case of an emergency situation based on the procedure that was done?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the context of a client post balloon angioplasty of the carotid artery, the correct item to have at the bedside for an emergency situation is option D) Endotracheal intubation. This is because in the event of a complication such as airway compromise or respiratory distress, having an endotracheal tube readily available is crucial for maintaining a patient's airway and ensuring adequate oxygenation. Options A, B, and C are incorrect in this scenario because: A) BP apparatus: While monitoring blood pressure is important postoperatively, it is not the most critical item to have at the bedside in case of an emergency related to airway or breathing. B) Call bell: While it is important for the patient to have access to the call bell for assistance, it is not a tool that directly addresses an emergency related to airway compromise. C) IV infusion stand: While IV access is important for fluid administration and medication delivery, it does not directly address the immediate need for airway management in case of an emergency. In an educational context, it is vital for healthcare providers to understand the specific needs of patients post different procedures and surgeries. In this case, recognizing the potential respiratory complications following a carotid artery angioplasty and being prepared with the appropriate equipment, such as an endotracheal tube, can make a significant difference in patient outcomes. This scenario highlights the importance of emergency preparedness and the critical thinking required in providing safe and effective patient care.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following actions should the nurse perform before a client with impaired physical mobility gets up?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct action the nurse should perform before a client with impaired physical mobility gets up is to apply an abdominal binder (Option B). The rationale behind this is that an abdominal binder provides support to the abdomen and lower back, which can help stabilize the client's core and provide additional support when transitioning from sitting to standing. This support can prevent strain on the client's muscles and reduce the risk of falls or injuries during the transfer process. Now, let's discuss why the other options are incorrect: A) Using parallel bars or a walker may be appropriate for some clients with impaired physical mobility, but in this specific context of a client preparing to get up, the focus should be on providing support to the core and lower back, which an abdominal binder can achieve more effectively. C) Using incontinence pads is not directly related to assisting a client with impaired physical mobility in getting up. While managing incontinence is important, it is not the immediate concern when helping a client transition from sitting to standing. D) Using a footboard is typically used to prevent foot drop in clients who are immobile or bedridden for extended periods. While a footboard can be beneficial in certain situations, it is not the most appropriate intervention to help a client with impaired physical mobility get up. In an educational context, understanding the importance of proper body mechanics, support devices, and assistive equipment in managing clients with impaired physical mobility is crucial for nurses. By selecting the correct intervention, such as applying an abdominal binder in this case, nurses can enhance patient safety, prevent injuries, and promote effective mobility for their clients.
Question 5 of 5
How do spinal nerves of the peripheral nervous system (PNS) differ from cranial nerves (CNs)?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All spinal nerves contain both afferent sensory and efferent motor fibers whereas cranial nerves contain one or the other or both. This is because spinal nerves originate from the spinal cord and carry both sensory information from the body to the brain (afferent) and motor commands from the brain to the muscles (efferent). Option A is incorrect because cranial nerves also occur in pairs, with 12 pairs in total. Option B is incorrect as cranial nerves are responsible for sensory and motor functions not only in the head and neck but also in other parts of the body. Option C is incorrect because while the cell bodies of most cranial nerves are located in the brain, some originate from the brainstem. Understanding the differences between spinal and cranial nerves is crucial in health assessment as it impacts the evaluation of neurological functions and helps in diagnosing conditions related to the nervous system. Students must grasp the unique roles and pathways of these nerves to accurately assess and care for patients with neurological issues.