ATI RN
Pharmacology Final ATI Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient arrives in the emergency department with severe chest pain. The patient reports that the pain has been occurring off and on for a week now. Which assessment finding would indicate the need for cautious use of nitrates and nitrites?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A blood pressure of 88/62 mm Hg indicates hypotension, which is a contraindication for nitrates and nitrites use. Nitrates and nitrites are vasodilators that can further lower blood pressure, potentially leading to severe hypotension and cardiovascular collapse in a patient with already low blood pressure. Therefore, caution should be exercised in administering nitrates and nitrites to a patient with hypotension. In this case, the presence of severe chest pain may be indicative of a myocardial infarction, which would typically warrant the consideration of nitroglycerin (a nitrate) administration for chest pain relief. However, in the presence of hypotension, alternative treatment options may need to be considered first to stabilize the blood pressure before nitrate administration.
Question 2 of 5
When the nurse is administering topical nitroglycerin ointment, which technique is correct?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct technique when administering topical nitroglycerin ointment is to remove the old ointment before applying the new ointment. This is to prevent any potential overdosing of the medication, as nitroglycerin can be rapidly absorbed through the skin. It is important to ensure that the previous application is fully removed before applying a new dose to prevent any accumulation of the medication.
Question 3 of 5
What is the pharmacologic classification of Amlodipine
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Amlodipine belongs to the pharmacologic class of calcium channel blockers. It works by inhibiting the influx of calcium ions into smooth muscle cells, leading to vasodilation and lower blood pressure. This medication is commonly used to treat hypertension (high blood pressure) and certain types of angina (chest pain). It is not a beta blocker, 5-HT3 antagonist, or nonopioid analgesic.
Question 4 of 5
A 24-year-old beautician has a history of chronic fatigue since an attack of infectious mononucleosis when aged 20. Her fatigue has become progressively worse. Her periods are painful, heavy and irregular. Her BP is 116/62 (supine) and 92/52 (standing). Serum Na+ is 132, K+ 5.5, creatinine 60 μmol/L. Which of the following would be most appropriate management?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Fatigue, orthostatic hypotension (116/62 to 92/52), hyponatremia (Na+ 132), and hyperkalemia (K+ 5.5) post-mononucleosis suggest Addison's disease (adrenal insufficiency). Fludrocortisone treats mineralocorticoid deficiency but needs diagnosis first. CBT addresses fatigue psychologically, not endocrine causes. Aciclovir treats viral infections, irrelevant here. Tetracosactide (Synacthen) tests adrenal function, diagnosing Addison's by cortisol response, most appropriate to confirm before lifelong therapy. This diagnostic step ensures accurate management, critical in suspected adrenal failure.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is giving instructions to a client receiving phenytoin (Dilantin). The nurse concludes that the client has a sufficient knowledge if the client states that:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Monitoring the serum phenytoin level is crucial when taking phenytoin (Dilantin) because phenytoin has a narrow therapeutic range. Having regular blood tests to check the drug levels ensures that the medication is within the effective range and helps prevent toxicity or ineffectiveness. This also allows healthcare providers to adjust the dosage if needed, based on the serum level results. It is an essential part of managing phenytoin therapy and ensuring its effectiveness while minimizing the risk of adverse reactions.