A patient admitted to the ICU develops severe sepsis with refractory hypotension despite adequate fluid resuscitation. What intervention should the healthcare team prioritize to manage the patient's septic shock?

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Question 1 of 5

A patient admitted to the ICU develops severe sepsis with refractory hypotension despite adequate fluid resuscitation. What intervention should the healthcare team prioritize to manage the patient's septic shock?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario described, the patient is experiencing refractory hypotension despite adequate fluid resuscitation, indicating the presence of septic shock. In septic shock, systemic vasodilation and vascular hyporesponsiveness contribute to hypotension. Therefore, the primary management approach is to restore vascular tone and blood pressure to maintain organ perfusion. Administering vasopressor medications (Choice A) is the crucial intervention to achieve this goal. Vasopressors, such as norepinephrine or vasopressin, constrict blood vessels and increase blood pressure, helping to stabilize the patient in septic shock. While options B and C (performing blood cultures and initiating broad-spectrum antibiotics) are important for identifying the causative pathogen and treating the infection, they are secondary to the immediate need for hemodynamic support in septic shock. Prophylactic anticoagulation (Choice D) is not the primary intervention for

Question 2 of 5

Which of the following conditions is characterized by inflammation of the tendons surrounding the shoulder joint, leading to pain and restricted movement?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Bursitis is characterized by inflammation of the bursa, which is a small, fluid-filled sac that cushions and reduces friction between bones, tendons, and muscles near joints. In the shoulder, bursitis commonly affects the subacromial bursa, located between the rotator cuff tendons and the top of the shoulder blade. The inflammation of this bursa can lead to pain and restricted movement around the shoulder joint.

Question 3 of 5

Which of the following is a common clinical manifestation of osteoarthritis in the hip joint?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Osteoarthritis in the hip joint can lead to weakness or dysfunction in the hip abductor muscles, causing a Trendelenburg gait. This gait abnormality is characterized by a dropping of the pelvis on the opposite side of the affected hip during weight-bearing on the affected leg. It is a common clinical manifestation of hip osteoarthritis due to the muscle weakness and altered mechanics in the hip joint. Baker's cyst is associated with knee osteoarthritis, Heberden's nodes are commonly seen in osteoarthritis of the fingers, and Swan-neck deformity is typically seen in rheumatoid arthritis, not osteoarthritis.

Question 4 of 5

A patient with osteoarthritis of the hip undergoes surgical intervention with a total hip arthroplasty (THA). Which postoperative complication should the healthcare team monitor for in the immediate postoperative period?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Following total hip arthroplasty (THA), patients are at an increased risk of developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT) due to factors such as immobility, surgery-related vascular damage, and hypercoagulability. DVT refers to the formation of blood clots in the deep veins, typically in the lower extremities. These clots can break loose and travel to the lungs, causing a potentially life-threatening condition called pulmonary embolism (PE). Therefore, monitoring for signs and symptoms of DVT is crucial in the immediate postoperative period to promptly detect and prevent the development of complications such as PE. Common signs of DVT include leg swelling, pain, warmth, and redness. Additionally, healthcare providers may employ preventive measures such as early ambulation, compression stockings, and anticoagulant therapy to reduce the risk of DVT post-THA surgery.

Question 5 of 5

A patient presents with sudden-onset severe lower abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and inability to pass urine. On physical examination, there is suprapubic tenderness and a palpable bladder. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The patient's presentation with sudden-onset severe lower abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, inability to pass urine, suprapubic tenderness, and a palpable bladder is classic for acute urinary retention. Acute urinary retention is a urological emergency characterized by the sudden inability to pass urine due to the inability to empty the bladder completely. The palpable bladder on physical examination indicates significant bladder distension. This condition can be caused by multiple factors such as bladder outlet obstruction, neurogenic causes, or medications affecting bladder function. Prompt intervention is necessary to relieve the bladder distension, alleviate symptoms, and prevent complications like bladder rupture.

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