A patient admitted for management of sepsis is critically ill and wants to talk with a hospital representative about donating her organs if she dies. She has a fairly complex medical history that includes traumatic brain injury, breast cancer, and dialysis-dependent renal failure. The patient is advised that she is ineligible to donate due to her

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Midwifery Exam Questions Questions

Question 1 of 9

A patient admitted for management of sepsis is critically ill and wants to talk with a hospital representative about donating her organs if she dies. She has a fairly complex medical history that includes traumatic brain injury, breast cancer, and dialysis-dependent renal failure. The patient is advised that she is ineligible to donate due to her

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Gram negative infection. In sepsis, especially with a Gram negative infection, organ donation may pose a risk of transmitting the infection to the recipient. This can be life-threatening for the organ recipient. Renal failure (choice A), traumatic brain injury (choice B), and breast cancer (choice D) are not direct contraindications to organ donation. Renal failure may limit the suitability of certain organs, but it does not automatically disqualify a patient from donating other organs. Traumatic brain injury may impact brain donation but does not rule out other organ donation. Breast cancer may affect eligibility for certain organs but does not universally disqualify a patient from organ donation.

Question 2 of 9

T. S. is a 31-year-old female who is admitted following a catastrophic industrial accident. She had multiple injuries, and after a 10-day hospital stay that included several operations and attempts to save her, she is declared brain dead. She had an organ donor notation on her drivers license. Which of the following circumstances precludes her from serving as a liver donor?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: A long history of alcohol use. In this case, the patient T. S. is brain dead following a catastrophic accident. Although she had an organ donor notation, her long history of alcohol use precludes her from serving as a liver donor. Chronic alcohol use can lead to liver damage and compromise the quality of the liver for transplantation. Encephalopathy (choice A) is a potential complication of liver disease, but it does not preclude her from being a liver donor. Hepatitis C infection (choice B) and biliary cirrhosis (choice D) may affect the liver, but they do not automatically disqualify her as a donor.

Question 3 of 9

What are the main causes of postpartum hemorrhage?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, "All of the above." Postpartum hemorrhage can be caused by uterine atony, which is the failure of the uterus to contract after delivery; retained placenta, where parts of the placenta remain in the uterus; and vaginal trauma, such as tears or lacerations during delivery. Each of these factors can contribute to excessive bleeding after childbirth. Therefore, selecting all the choices is necessary to encompass the main causes of postpartum hemorrhage.

Question 4 of 9

Teratogenic causes of congenital abnormalities include

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because radiation and substances of abuse are known teratogenic causes of congenital abnormalities. Radiation exposure can lead to genetic mutations and developmental issues in the fetus. Substances of abuse like alcohol, tobacco, and illicit drugs can also negatively impact fetal development. A: Medical conditions and pesticides may have negative effects on pregnancy outcomes, but they are not typically classified as teratogenic causes of congenital abnormalities. B: Prescription drugs can be teratogenic in some cases, but not all prescription drugs have harmful effects on fetal development. Chromosomes are not typically considered teratogenic causes. D: Disordered genes can lead to congenital abnormalities, but they are not classified as teratogenic causes. Medical conditions are not universally teratogenic.

Question 5 of 9

In which form of hypospadias should circumcision be deferred in order to preserve the prepuce for later surgical repair?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In ventral displacement hypospadias, circumcision should be deferred to preserve prepuce for later surgical repair as the prepuce is needed for reconstruction. The prepuce can be used as a tissue graft to correct the hypospadias. In proximal displacement, the urethral opening is closer to the scrotum, making prepuce preservation less critical. Midscrotal hypospadias and meatus proximal to the corona do not typically involve prepuce preservation for surgical repair.

Question 6 of 9

The main clinical feature in hyperemesis gravidarum is

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Persistent vomiting or nausea. Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of morning sickness characterized by persistent vomiting and nausea during pregnancy. This is the main clinical feature due to hormonal changes and increased sensitivity to certain odors. Choice B is incorrect as sight-related problems are not a typical feature of hyperemesis gravidarum. Choice C is incorrect as persistent diarrhea is not a defining feature of this condition. Choice D is incorrect as frequency or urgency of micturition is not a primary symptom of hyperemesis gravidarum.

Question 7 of 9

A general principle in surgical oncology is that the best approach to curative surgery in a fixed tumor requires

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Elective lymph node dissection. This is because elective lymph node dissection helps to remove potentially cancerous lymph nodes, aiding in staging and ensuring complete tumor removal, thus improving the chances of curative surgery. En bloc resection (A) is important but may not always be feasible in fixed tumors. Adjuvant therapies (B) are used after surgery, not as the primary approach. Neoadjuvant therapies (C) are given before surgery to shrink tumors, not specifically for fixed tumors.

Question 8 of 9

For questions 91 & 92, match the following with the statements in column A by indicating the correct number

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Precipitate labor. Precipitate labor refers to a rapid labor and delivery process. It is matched with the statement in column A because it is associated with a sudden and quick progression of labor, leading to a rapid delivery of the baby. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Colicky uterus - This term is not related to rapid labor but rather refers to uterine contractions that are painful and intermittent. B: Constriction ring dystocia - This term describes a condition where there is a tight band around the uterus, causing difficulty in the delivery process, which is different from the rapid progression seen in precipitate labor. D: Cervical dystocia - This term refers to a condition where there are issues with the dilation or effacement of the cervix, not directly related to the speed of labor as in precipitate labor.

Question 9 of 9

In obstructed labor, edema of the vulva presents early due to

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because pressure applied on the cervix by the presenting part in obstructed labor leads to edema of the vulva. This pressure causes obstruction of blood and lymphatic flow in the area, resulting in swelling and edema. Prolonged effort by the mother (choice A) would not directly cause vulvar edema. An ill-fitting presenting part (choice C) may contribute to obstruction but does not explain the mechanism of edema. Large presenting diameters (choice D) stretching the vulva would not directly cause edema without pressure on the cervix.

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