ATI RN
Maternal Disorders Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient, 32 weeks pregnant with severe headache, is admitted to the hospital with preeclampsia. In addition to obtaining baseline vital signs and placing the client on bed rest, the physician ordered the following four items. Which of the orders should the nurse perform first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assess deep tendon reflexes. This is the priority because preeclampsia can progress to eclampsia, a life-threatening condition characterized by seizures. Assessing deep tendon reflexes helps in identifying signs of impending eclampsia. Obtaining a complete blood count (option B) and routine urinalysis (option D) are important in monitoring for complications of preeclampsia but do not address the immediate risk of seizures. Assessing baseline weight (option C) is also important but does not take precedence over assessing deep tendon reflexes in this scenario.
Question 2 of 5
A client has severe preeclampsia. The nurse would expect the primary health care practitioner to order tests to assess the fetus for which of the following?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR). In severe preeclampsia, there is a risk of placental insufficiency leading to reduced blood flow to the fetus, resulting in IUGR. The primary concern is monitoring the fetus's growth and well-being. A: Severe anemia is not typically a direct result of severe preeclampsia and is not a primary concern in this situation. B: Hypoprothrombinemia refers to a deficiency in blood clotting factors and is not directly related to fetal well-being in the context of severe preeclampsia. C: Craniosynostosis is a condition where the bones in an infant's skull fuse too early, which is a congenital issue and not typically related to preeclampsia. In summary, the primary concern in severe preeclampsia is assessing fetal growth and well-being due to placental insufficiency, making IUG
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is grading a woman's reflexes. Which of the following grades would indicate reflexes that are slightly brisker than normal?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 4 of 5
A client with mild preeclampsia who has been advised to be on bed rest at home asks why doing so is necessary. Which of the following is the best response for the nurse to give the client?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because reclining will help improve blood flow to the placenta, increasing oxygen delivery to the baby. This is crucial in preeclampsia to prevent complications such as fetal growth restriction. A: Incorrect. Bed rest in preeclampsia is not primarily for energy conservation but to reduce blood pressure and prevent further complications. B: Incorrect. Bed rest does not directly address nausea and anorexia associated with preeclampsia; it focuses on maternal and fetal well-being. D: Incorrect. Position change does not directly prevent placental separation in preeclampsia; it is more related to maintaining adequate blood flow to the placenta.
Question 5 of 5
Which infant is most likely to express Rh incompatibility?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Rh incompatibility occurs when the mother is Rh-negative and the father is Rh-positive. 2. If the father is homozygous for Rh factor (AA), all offspring will be Rh-positive. 3. The Rh-positive offspring from an Rh-negative mother can lead to Rh incompatibility. 4. Therefore, the infant of an Rh-negative mother and a father who is Rh positive and homozygous for the Rh factor is most likely to express Rh incompatibility. Summary: - Choice B is incorrect because both mother and infant are Rh-negative. - Choice C is incorrect because the father being heterozygous for the Rh factor would not result in all offspring being Rh-positive. - Choice D is incorrect as both mother and infant are Rh-positive, so there is no risk of Rh incompatibility.