ATI RN
Pharmacology Across the Lifespan ATI Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A parent of a 5 year old child with allergic rhinitis is seeking an approved treatment to make the child feel better. which of the following is recommended?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Cetirizine is recommended for allergic rhinitis in children due to its safety and effectiveness. Step 2: Cetirizine is a second-generation antihistamine with minimal sedative effects, making it suitable for children. Step 3: Cetirizine has a longer duration of action compared to first-generation antihistamines like Diphenhydramine and Promethazine. Step 4: Medizine is not a commonly used medication for allergic rhinitis, so it is not recommended. Step 5: Diphenhydramine and Promethazine are first-generation antihistamines with sedative effects, not ideal for children.
Question 2 of 5
In groups of people are at high risk for early hypertension?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: African American. African Americans are at high risk for early hypertension due to genetic predispositions, higher prevalence of obesity, and socioeconomic factors. They have higher rates of high blood pressure and complications at a younger age compared to other groups. Adolescents or young adults (B) can develop hypertension, but it is not as prevalent compared to African Americans. Mexican American culture (C) and Mediterranean populations (D) may have lower rates of hypertension compared to African Americans due to dietary habits and lifestyle factors.
Question 3 of 5
Below question: don't know the correct combination. Below is what was picked but incorrect. The NP explains to the NP students about penicillin. Which is true about penicillin? Select all that apply
Correct Answer: B,C
Rationale: Answer B is correct because penicillin is indeed a beta-lactam antibiotic, which refers to its chemical structure. Answer C is correct because penicillin primarily targets actively growing and dividing bacteria. Answer A is incorrect because penicillin works by inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis, not by causing bacteria to take up excess water and rupture. Answer D is incorrect because penicillin is bactericidal, meaning it kills bacteria, as opposed to being bacteriostatic, which inhibits bacterial growth.
Question 4 of 5
A patient comes to your clinic having taken an undetermined amount of heroin. The drug of choice for heroin overdose is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Naloxone (Narcan). Naloxone is an opioid receptor antagonist that rapidly reverses the effects of opioid overdose, such as heroin. It competes with opioids for receptor sites in the brain, blocking their effects and reversing respiratory depression, a common complication of opioid overdose. Naltrexone (A) is not used in acute overdose situations. Methadone (B) is a long-acting opioid agonist used for opioid dependence but not for acute overdose. Clonidine (D) is used to manage withdrawal symptoms but does not directly reverse opioid overdose effects. Naloxone is the drug of choice for opioid overdose due to its rapid and effective reversal of opioid effects.
Question 5 of 5
Which patient statement suggests to the provider that the patient's nonadherence with their medication plan is related to dissatisfaction with the therapy?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the patient's statement indicates dissatisfaction with the therapy. The patient expected more weight loss after taking the medication for over a week, suggesting they are not happy with the results. This dissatisfaction may lead to nonadherence. A: Financial issues are a common reason for nonadherence, not necessarily linked to dissatisfaction with therapy. B: Time constraints can also impact adherence but do not directly indicate dissatisfaction with therapy. C: Forgetfulness is a common reason for nonadherence and does not necessarily imply dissatisfaction with therapy.