A nursing student learns about modifiable risk factors for coronary artery disease. Which factors does this include? (SATA)

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Hypertension is a modifiable risk factor as it can be controlled through lifestyle changes and medication. 2. Age is a non-modifiable risk factor, as it naturally increases the risk of coronary artery disease. 3. Obesity is a modifiable risk factor, as weight management through diet and exercise can reduce the risk. 4. Smoking is a modifiable risk factor, as quitting smoking can significantly reduce the risk. Summary: B is correct as it is a modifiable risk factor that can be actively managed. A, C, and D are incorrect as age is non-modifiable and obesity and smoking are modifiable but were not selected as correct options.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the pain of a myocardial infarction (MI) typically lasts longer than 15 minutes, unlike stable angina which lasts for a shorter duration. MI pain is usually described as intense, crushing, and prolonged, whereas stable angina pain is often triggered by exertion and relieved by rest or medication like nitroglycerin. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because shortness of breath, feelings of fear or anxiety, and lack of relief from nitroglycerin are not definitive differentiating factors between MI and stable angina.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because teaching the client about factor V Leiden testing is important in this scenario. Factor V Leiden is a genetic mutation that increases the risk of blood clot formation, including pulmonary embolism. Since the client has no known risk factors for PE, testing for this specific genetic mutation can help identify an underlying cause. Encouraging walking (choice A) is generally beneficial but may not address the root cause. Referring for smoking cessation (choice B) is not relevant in this case. Explaining that sometimes no cause is found (choice D) is not proactive and may lead to missed opportunities for prevention.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Correct Answer: C Rationale: 1. A pulmonary embolism is a blockage in one of the pulmonary arteries, affecting blood flow to the lungs. 2. This blockage limits perfusion, the process of blood flow through the lungs for oxygenation. 3. Oxygen saturation may not improve significantly because the blood clot interferes with perfusion, not ventilation. 4. Options A and B focus on ventilation issues, which may not be the primary concern in this case. 5. Option D is extreme and not supported by the information given about the client's condition. Summary: Choice C is correct because a pulmonary embolism affects perfusion in the lungs, leading to decreased oxygen saturation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they focus on other issues not directly related to the client's condition.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increase the heparin rate. A PTT of 25 seconds indicates that the client's blood is not adequately anticoagulated, as the therapeutic range for PTT is typically around 60-80 seconds for heparin therapy. Therefore, the nurse should anticipate increasing the heparin rate to achieve the desired anticoagulant effect and prevent further clot formation. Incorrect choices: A: Decreasing the heparin rate would further decrease the anticoagulant effect, potentially putting the client at risk for thrombus progression. C: No change to the heparin rate would not address the subtherapeutic PTT level and could lead to inadequate anticoagulation. D: Stopping heparin and starting warfarin is not appropriate at this time as warfarin takes time to reach therapeutic levels, whereas heparin provides immediate anticoagulation for acute situations like a pulmonary embolism.