ATI RN
Lifespan Pharmacology Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nursing student is reviewing mechanisms of drug action. Which of the following matches the MOA of glucocorticoids?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the context of lifespan pharmacology, understanding the mechanisms of drug action is crucial for nursing students. The correct answer, option A, matches the mechanism of action (MOA) of glucocorticoids. Glucocorticoids prevent inflammation, suppress airway mucus production, and promote the responsiveness of beta2 receptors. This is the correct answer because glucocorticoids are commonly used to reduce inflammation by inhibiting the production of inflammatory mediators and suppressing the immune response. They also help in managing conditions like asthma by reducing airway inflammation and mucus production while enhancing the response of beta2 receptors, leading to bronchodilation. Options B, C, and D are incorrect. Option B mentions effects on gastrointestinal mucus production and the duodenal lining, which are not typical actions of glucocorticoids. Option C references cerebrospinal fluid production and the frontal lobe of the brain, which are not primary targets of glucocorticoids. Option D states that glucocorticoids are diuretic, which is inaccurate as they primarily exert anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive effects. In an educational context, it is essential for nursing students to grasp the specific actions of different drug classes like glucocorticoids to make informed clinical decisions. Understanding the MOA of drugs helps students anticipate therapeutic effects, side effects, and potential interactions, ensuring safe and effective medication management across the lifespan.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following direct thrombin inhibitors is administered to clients having hip replacement surgery to prevent DVT?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the context of preventing deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in clients undergoing hip replacement surgery, the correct direct thrombin inhibitor is Desirudin (Option A). Desirudin is a recombinant hirudin that specifically inhibits thrombin, a key enzyme in the blood coagulation process. This makes it an effective anticoagulant for preventing DVT in orthopedic surgery patients. Argatroban (Option B) is also a direct thrombin inhibitor, but it is primarily used for treating or preventing thrombosis in patients with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia. It is not typically used for DVT prophylaxis in hip replacement surgery patients. Dabigatran (Option C) is a direct oral anticoagulant that inhibits thrombin. While it is used for preventing stroke and systemic embolism in patients with atrial fibrillation, it is not the preferred choice for DVT prophylaxis in orthopedic surgery patients. The option "All of the above" (Option D) is incorrect because not all the listed direct thrombin inhibitors are indicated for DVT prophylaxis in hip replacement surgery. In an educational context, understanding the specific mechanisms of action and indications for different direct thrombin inhibitors is crucial for healthcare professionals to make informed decisions regarding anticoagulant therapy for their patients. This knowledge ensures optimal patient care and reduces the risk of complications such as DVT in surgical patients.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse treating a patient receiving heparin should understand that hemorrhage can occur if medication administration leads to
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the context of lifespan pharmacology, understanding the implications of heparin administration is crucial for nurses. The correct answer is A) high activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) because heparin is a medication that works by increasing aPTT, thereby preventing blood clot formation. If the aPTT becomes too high, it can lead to hemorrhage as the blood takes longer to clot, increasing the risk of bleeding. Option B) low aPTT is incorrect because a low aPTT would indicate that the heparin is not at a therapeutic level, which would not increase the risk of hemorrhage. Option C) high prothrombin time (PT) is incorrect because heparin primarily affects aPTT, not PT. PT is more commonly used to monitor patients on warfarin therapy. Option D) low prothrombin time is incorrect for the same reason as option C. Heparin does not directly impact PT levels. Educationally, nurses need to understand the specific monitoring parameters for heparin therapy to ensure patient safety. Monitoring aPTT levels is essential to prevent complications such as hemorrhage while ensuring the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin. This knowledge is critical in providing safe and effective care to patients receiving anticoagulant therapy.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse notes in the patient's medication order that the patient will be starting anticoagulant therapy. What is the primary goal of anticoagulant therapy?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the context of lifespan pharmacology, understanding the primary goal of anticoagulant therapy is crucial for safe and effective medication administration. The correct answer is D) Preventing thrombus formation. The primary goal of anticoagulant therapy is to prevent the formation of blood clots (thrombus) within the blood vessels. Anticoagulants work by inhibiting the coagulation cascade, which is the process that leads to the formation of clots. By preventing clot formation, anticoagulants help reduce the risk of serious conditions such as deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism, and stroke. Option A) Dissolving an existing thrombus is incorrect because anticoagulants are not typically used to dissolve existing blood clots. Thrombolytic agents are used for this purpose. Option B) Stabilizing an existing thrombus is also incorrect as anticoagulants do not stabilize clots but rather prevent their formation or growth. Option C) Dilating the vessel around a clot is not the primary goal of anticoagulant therapy. This action is more related to interventions like thrombolytic therapy or mechanical clot removal procedures. Understanding the primary goal of anticoagulant therapy is essential for nurses to ensure safe medication administration, monitor for potential side effects such as bleeding, and educate patients on the importance of compliance with their anticoagulant regimen to prevent thrombus formation and associated complications.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse plans medication education for a client who receives a prescription for sildenafil (Viagra). What will the best plan by the nurse include?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the context of educating a client about sildenafil (Viagra), the best plan by the nurse would include option C: Be sure to take only one pill in a 24-hour period. This is the correct answer because sildenafil is a medication used to treat erectile dysfunction, and taking more than the prescribed dose can lead to serious side effects such as priapism (prolonged erection) or hypotension. Option A is incorrect because grapefruit juice can actually increase the effects of sildenafil, leading to an increased risk of side effects due to higher drug levels in the body. Option B is incorrect because sildenafil should be taken approximately 30 minutes to 1 hour before sexual activity, not 1 to 6 hours before. Option D is incorrect because sildenafil can be taken with or without food, so taking it with food is not necessary. In an educational context, it is important for nurses to provide accurate and clear information to clients regarding their medications to ensure safe and effective use. Understanding proper dosing, timing, and potential drug interactions is crucial in promoting positive health outcomes and preventing harm. Encouraging clients to follow medication instructions as prescribed by their healthcare provider is essential in maximizing the benefits of treatment while minimizing risks.