ATI RN
Mental Health ATI Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nursing instructor is preparing a class lecture about cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT). Which of the following would the instructor use to best describe this process?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) focuses on helping patients change their thoughts and behaviors to improve their mental health. In CBT, patients work collaboratively with the therapist to identify and challenge negative thought patterns and behaviors. By changing these cognitive distortions and maladaptive behaviors, patients can improve their emotional well-being. Choice A is incorrect because CBT is not about solving patients' problems for them, but rather empowering them to solve their own issues. Choice B is incorrect as it focuses solely on behavior modification and does not address the cognitive component of CBT. Choice C is incorrect because CBT aims to challenge and change distorted beliefs rather than reinforcing them.
Question 2 of 5
A group of nursing students is reviewing information about the types of crisis. The students demonstrate understanding of the information when they identify which of the following as a developmental crisis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Going away to college. A developmental crisis is a normal life event that occurs as a person progresses through the stages of life. Going away to college is a typical developmental milestone that can cause stress and require adaptation. This type of crisis is expected and can lead to personal growth and development. Choice B, obtaining a job promotion, is not a developmental crisis as it is not a typical life event associated with a specific stage of life. Choice C, loss of a pet, is considered a situational crisis rather than a developmental crisis. Choice D, earthquake, is classified as a traumatic crisis caused by a sudden and unexpected event, which is not related to personal growth or normal life transitions.
Question 3 of 5
A client has been diagnosed with major depression. The client reports that he often wakes up during the night and has trouble returning to sleep. The nurse interprets this finding as suggesting which of the following?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Middle insomnia. This is because the client waking up during the night and having trouble returning to sleep is characteristic of middle insomnia, which refers to difficulty maintaining sleep in the middle of the night. Initial insomnia (A) is difficulty falling asleep at the beginning of the night. Terminal insomnia (B) is early morning awakening with an inability to return to sleep. Hypersomnia (C) is excessive daytime sleepiness, which is not indicative of the client's symptoms. Therefore, the correct interpretation in this scenario is middle insomnia.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is reading an article about a young girl who developed gastrointestinal symptoms from a hairball because of a ritual that she engaged in. The girl would pull out hair over several hours to relieve tension and anxiety and then eat the hair. The nurse most likely is reading an article about which of the following?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Trichotillomania. Trichotillomania is a disorder characterized by the compulsive urge to pull out one's hair, leading to hair loss. In this case, the young girl's behavior of pulling out hair to relieve tension and anxiety aligns with the symptoms of trichotillomania. Kleptomania (A) is the urge to steal items, not related to hair pulling. Pyromania (C) is the urge to set fires, not related to hair pulling. Intermittent explosive disorder (D) involves episodes of impulsive aggression, not related to hair pulling.
Question 5 of 5
A client with premature ejaculation is prescribed sertraline as part of the treatment plan. The nurse explains the medication to the client, informing him that the effectiveness of the drug will most likely be evident in approximately which time frame?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 1 to 2 weeks. Sertraline is an antidepressant that can help with premature ejaculation. It typically takes 1 to 2 weeks for the medication to start showing effectiveness due to the need for the drug to reach a therapeutic level in the body. This time frame allows the client's body to adjust to the medication and for the serotonin levels to stabilize, resulting in improved control over ejaculation. Choices A (5 to 7 days), C (3 to 4 weeks), and D (6 to 8 weeks) are incorrect as they do not align with the typical onset of action for sertraline. A shorter time frame like 5 to 7 days is usually insufficient for the drug to reach therapeutic levels, while longer time frames like 3 to 4 weeks or 6 to 8 weeks exceed the typical onset of action for this medication.