A nurse works in a gerontology clinic. What age-related change(s) related to the hematologic system will the nurse expect during health assessment? (Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: C: Progressive loss or thinning of hair occurs in the geriatric population due to age-related changes in the hair follicles. As individuals age, the hair follicles shrink, leading to hair thinning or loss. Incorrect Choices: A: Dentition deteriorating with more cavities is related to oral health, not the hematologic system. B: Strong and smooth nails are not directly related to age-related changes in the hematologic system. D: Sclerae turning yellow or pale is indicative of potential liver dysfunction, not a direct age-related change in the hematologic system.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Monocytosis. In chronic bacterial infections, monocytosis occurs due to the increased presence of monocytes in response to the persistent infection. Monocytes differentiate into macrophages to help eliminate the bacteria. Neutrophilia (A) is more common in acute bacterial infections. Basophilia (B) is associated with conditions like chronic myeloid leukemia, not bacterial infections. Lymphocytosis (C) is often seen in viral infections or chronic inflammatory conditions, not specifically in chronic bacterial infections.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Filovirus. Viral hemorrhagic fevers are caused by viruses within the Filovirus family, which includes Ebola and Marburg viruses. Symptoms such as fever, vomiting, hypotension, and facial edema are characteristic of these infections. Togavirus (choice B) does not typically cause hemorrhagic fevers. Adenovirus (choice C) and Bunyavirus (choice D) are not commonly associated with viral hemorrhagic fevers. Therefore, the suspected virus in this patient most likely belongs to the Filovirus family.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency (G6PD). Sulfonamides can trigger hemolysis in patients with G6PD deficiency due to oxidative stress on red blood cells. G6PD enzyme deficiency impairs the ability of red blood cells to combat oxidative damage, leading to hemolysis. In this case, the patient's hemoglobin decreased significantly after sulfonamide treatment, indicating red blood cell destruction. The other choices (A: Sickle cell disease, B: Thalassemia minor, C: Hereditary spherocytosis) are not directly associated with sulfonamide-induced hemolysis and would not explain the observed decrease in hemoglobin levels after treatment.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Myelodysplastic syndrome. The patient's symptoms of weakness, lassitude, and reduced erythropoiesis along with increased myeloblasts in bone marrow are indicative of a myelodysplastic syndrome. This condition is characterized by ineffective hematopoiesis leading to cytopenias and an increased risk of progression to acute myeloid leukemia. Acute myeloid leukemia (choice A) typically presents with more aggressive symptoms and higher blast count. Acute lymphoid leukemia (choice B) primarily affects lymphoid cells, not myeloid cells. Myelofibrosis (choice C) is characterized by fibrosis in the bone marrow, leading to extramedullary hematopoiesis, which is not seen in this case.