A nurse works in a gerontology clinic. What age-related change(s) related to the hematologic system will the nurse expect during health assessment? (Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: Correct Answer (C): Progressive loss or thinning of hair is an age-related change in the hematologic system due to decreased blood flow to hair follicles. This is commonly observed in the elderly population. Incorrect Choices: A: Dentition deteriorates with more cavities is related to dental health, not the hematologic system. B: Nails being strong and smooth are related to nail health, not the hematologic system. D: Sclerae turning yellow or pale is a sign of jaundice, which is related to liver function, not the hematologic system.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Monocytosis. In chronic bacterial infections, there is a prolonged immune response leading to an increased production of monocytes to help combat the infection. Neutrophilia (choice A) is more characteristic of acute bacterial infections. Basophilia (choice B) is associated with allergic reactions or certain blood disorders, not typically seen in bacterial infections. Lymphocytosis (choice C) is more common in viral infections or certain immune responses, not specific to chronic bacterial infections.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Filovirus. Filoviruses, such as Ebola and Marburg viruses, are known to cause viral hemorrhagic fevers and are commonly found in Africa. The symptoms presented by the patient align with those of filovirus infections. Togavirus (choice B) and Bunyavirus (choice D) are not typically associated with viral hemorrhagic fevers. Adenovirus (choice C) can cause respiratory and gastrointestinal infections but is not known to cause viral hemorrhagic fevers.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency (G6PD). G6PD deficiency can cause hemolysis in response to oxidative stress, such as medications like sulfonamides. The decrease in hemoglobin levels after sulfonamide treatment indicates hemolysis, which is a common manifestation of G6PD deficiency. Sickle cell disease (A), thalassemia minor (B), and hereditary spherocytosis (C) do not typically present with hemolysis triggered by sulfonamides. G6PD deficiency is the most likely cause in this scenario due to the timing of hemolysis after the drug exposure and the characteristic response of G6PD-deficient red blood cells to oxidative stress.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Myelodysplastic syndrome. Given the patient's age, symptoms, and bone marrow findings of myeloblasts with reduced erythropoiesis, it aligns with the characteristics of myelodysplastic syndrome. This condition involves abnormal blood cell production leading to cytopenias and an increased risk of progression to acute myeloid leukemia. Acute myeloid leukemia (Choice A) typically presents with higher blast percentages and more aggressive symptoms. Acute lymphoid leukemia (Choice B) is less likely due to the presence of myeloblasts in the bone marrow. Myelofibrosis (Choice C) is characterized by fibrosis in the bone marrow, which is not indicated in this case.